| Test Code | Test Name | Cpt | Clinical Significance | Profile Components | |||||||||||||||
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 9 | Urinalysis, Complete (w/microscopic) | 81001 | Important in accessing the chemical constituents in the urine and the relationship to various disease states. Microscopic examination helps to detect the presence of cells and other formed elements | ||||||||||||||||
| 22 | Activated Protein C Resistance | 85307 | Activated Protein C (APC) resistance is the most frequent hereditary defect associated with deep vein thrombosis. Over 95 percent of the APC resistance phenotype is due to the Factor V Leiden Mutation. The APC-resistance assay is a plasma based functional test for the determination of APC resistance caused by the Factor V Leiden mutation. | ||||||||||||||||
| 31 | F MYELODYSPLASIA PROFILE BY FISH | ||||||||||||||||||
| 32 | F CHRONICH LYMPHOCYTIC LEUKEMIA PROFILE BY FISH | Multi | |||||||||||||||||
| 57 | SdLDL | 83704 | The small dense LDL test can be used to determine cardiovascular risk in individuals with metabolic syndrome or established/progressing coronary artery disease, individuals with triglyceride levels between 70 and 140 mg/dL, as well asindividuals with a diet high in trans fat or carbohydrates. | ||||||||||||||||
| 104 | LXR Confirm, Urine | G0480 | |||||||||||||||||
| 105 | LXR Screen, Urine | 80307 | |||||||||||||||||
| 106 | LXR Oral-3 | G0480 | |||||||||||||||||
| 107 | LXR Oral-4 | G0483 | |||||||||||||||||
| 108 | LXR TIER 1 CONFIRMATION | G0482 | |||||||||||||||||
| 120 | Drug Monitoring, Comp. Drugs, Urine Confirmation | G0483 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Amphetamines (8), Benzodiazepines (13), Opiates (8), Synthetic Opiates (18), Illicits (4), Anticonvulsants (2), Marijuana and others (6), Tranquilizers (6), Tricyclic Antidepressants (9), SSRIs/SARIs/SNRIs (9) | |||||||||||||||
| 122 | Drugs, Pain Management Initial Asses ment | ||||||||||||||||||
| 124 | Drugs, Pain Management Follow Up Asses ment | ||||||||||||||||||
| 125 | Diabetes Panel | Multi | HgA1c, Glucose, C-Peptide, Insulin, HOMA-IR, Microalbumin, Creatinine urine, Microalbumin/Creatinine Ratio | ||||||||||||||||
| 128 | HOMA-IR | ||||||||||||||||||
| 201 | Acetaminophen (Tylenol), Serum | 80329 (HCPCS: G6039) | Acetaminophen is an analgesic agent that may be hepatotoxic when ingested in quantities exceeding 150 mg/kg. | ||||||||||||||||
| 206 | Acetylcholine Receptor Binding Antibody | 83519 | Myasthenia Gravis (MG) is a neuromuscular disorder characterized by muscle weakness, most commonly due to autoantibody-mediated loss of functional acetylcholine receptors (AChR) in the neuromuscular junction. This assay aids in the differential diagnosis of MG-like muscle weakness, in differentiating between generalized MG and ocular MG, and in monitoring therapeutic response. If binding antibodies are negative, assays for blocking and modulating antibodies should be considered. | ||||||||||||||||
| 208 | Prostatic Acid Phos, Serum | 84066 | Prostatic acid phosphatase (PAP), a glycoprotein synthesized by the prostate gland, is a member of a diverse group of isoenzymes, the acid phosphatases, which are capable of hydrolyzing phosphate esters in acidic medium. They are classified on the basis of their electrophoretic mobilities. PAP was a major tumor marker for prostate cancer for more than 50 years.(1) However, PAP is no longer used to screen for or stage prostate cancer. In most instances, serum prostate specific antigen (PSA) is used instead. PAP usefulness is now limited to niche applications. Pre-treatment PAP measurement may add unique, clinically useful prognostic information for predicting recurrence in men who are undergoing radical prostatectomy for clinically localized prostate cancer. PAP also may be useful for following the progression of disease response to therapy in men treated by androgen ablation. However, for both of these applications, PSA provides more information and also should be utilized | ||||||||||||||||
| 213 | Immunofixation, Urine | 86335 | Immunofixation of urine is useful in evaluation of monoclonal free light chains and other monoclonal gammopathies seen in light chain disease, multiple myeloma, Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia, amyloidosis, and other lymphoproliferative disorders. Increased polyclonal free light chains in urine may be seen in glomerular leak syndromes and in infection or inflammation. | ||||||||||||||||
| 216 | Antithrombin III Activity | 85300 | Diagnosis of antithrombin deficiency, acquired or congenital. Monitoring treatment of antithrombin deficiency disorders, including infusion of antithrombin therapeutic concentrate. | ||||||||||||||||
| 222 | Additional Tests see comments | ||||||||||||||||||
| 228 | Alpha-2 Macroglobulins | 83883 | alpha2-macroglobulin assay is of major significance in the differential diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome, where an elevated alpha2-macroglobulin: albumin ratio is indicative of postrenal hematuria. In patients with liver cirrhosis and diabetes, the level of alpha2-macroglobulin is found to be elevated. | ||||||||||||||||
| 229 | Aldosterone, 24-Hour Urine | 82088 | Determination of aldosterone is useful in the diagnosis and evaluation of primary aldosteronism, selective hypoaldosteronism, edematous states, and other conditions of electrolyte imbalance. | Creatinine | |||||||||||||||
| 231 | Alkaline Phosphatase Isoenzymes | 84075, 84080 | Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) is present in a number of tissues including liver, bone, intestine, and placenta. The activity of ALP found in serum is a composite of isoenzymes from those sites and, in some circumstances, placental or Regan isoenzymes. Serum ALP is of interest in the diagnosis of 2 main groups of conditions-hepatobiliary disease and bone disease associated with increased osteoblastic activity. Arise in ALP activity occurs with all forms of cholestasis, particularly with obstructive jaundice. The response of the liver to any form of biliary tree obstruction is to synthesize more ALP. The main site of new enzyme synthesis is the hepatocytes adjacent to the biliary canaliculi. ALP also is elevated in disorders of the skeletal system that involve osteoblast hyperactivity and bone remodeling, such as Paget's disease rickets and osteomalacia, fractures, and malignant tumors. | Alkaline Phosphatase, Intestinal Isoenzymes, Bone Isoenzymes, Liver Isoenzymes, Placental Isoenzymes, Macrohepatic Isoenzymes | |||||||||||||||
| 235 | Alpha-1-Antitrypsin, Quantitative | 82103 | Alpha-1-Antitrypsin level may be increased in normal pregnancy and in several diseases including chronic pulmonary disease; hereditary angioedema; renal, gastric, liver and pancreatic diseases; diabetes; carcinomas and rheumatoid diseases. Alpha-1-Antitrypsin may be decreased in emphysema, hepatic cirrhosis, respiratory distress syndrome of the newborn, nephrosis, malnutrition and cachexia. If a deficiency is present, aat phenotyping may be considered to confirm heterozygous versus homozygous deficiencies. | ||||||||||||||||
| 236 | Amikacin | 80150 | Amikacin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic used in the treatment of gram-negative bacillary infections. Amikacin is potentially nephrotoxic and ototoxic and serial monitoring of peak and trough serum levels provides information to maintain safe and therapeutic levels. | ||||||||||||||||
| 249 | ANA Screen, with Reflex to Panel | 86038 | ANA screen through a combination of IA & IFA methods The ANA Reflex provides physicians with a cost-effective and medically justified approach to evaluating a patient with suspected rheumatologic disease. Eleven antibodies associated with specific rheumatologic disease entities are analyzed and resulted in sequential tiers until positive findings are reported. The test is not intended for the work-up of autoimmune hepatitis or other non-rheumatologic diseases. | If the ANA IA or IFA Screen is positive, it will reflex to Pattern & titer and the following antibodies : dsDNA Ab, Anti-SSA Ab, Anti-SSB Ab, Smith Ab, Sm RNP Ab, Ribosomal P Ab, Scl-70 Ab, Centromere B Ab, Jo-1 Ab, RNP Ab,Chromatin Ab | |||||||||||||||
| 250 | ANA Direct Sceen | 86038 | Detect antibodies to nuclear antigens using Multiplex flow immunoassay | ||||||||||||||||
| 252 | Arginine Vasopressin (AVP, Antidiuretic Hormone) | 84588 | Antidiuretic Hormone (also called ADH or Vasopressin) regulates water reabsorption in the kidney, reducing diuresis and increasing blood volume and pressure. The syndrome of inappropriate release of ADH (SIADH) occurs with neoplasia, pulmonary disorders (e.g., pneumonia and tuberculosis), CNS disorders, and with specific drugs. | ||||||||||||||||
| 255 | Anti-dsDNA Antibodies | 86225 | dsDNA Antibody is detected in patients with active systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and approximately 20 percent of patients with Mixed Connective Tissue Disease | ||||||||||||||||
| 256 | DNase-B Antibody | 86215 | Demonstration of acute or recent streptococcal infection. | ||||||||||||||||
| 259 | Mitochondrial Antibody with Reflex to Titer | 86255 | A high Anti-Mitochondrial Antibody (AMA) titer supports the diagnosis of primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC). Low titers of AMA may be detected in other liver disorders, which include chronic active hepatitis and cryptogenic cirrhosis. Mitochondrial M2 Antibody has an even higher specificity for PBC | If Mitochondrial Antibody Screen is positive, Mitochondrial Antibody Titer will be performed at an additional charge (CPT code(s): 86256). | |||||||||||||||
| 261 | Myocardial Antibody Screen with Reflex to Titer | 86255, 86256 | Detection of myocardial Antibodies suggests that a patient's heart disease may have an immunologic component. Myocardial Antibodies are found in the serum of patients with various cardiomyopathies, especially idiopathic dilated cardiomyopahty, myocarditis, rheumatic fever, and Dressler's Syndrome. | If Myocardial Antibody Screen is positive, Myocardial Antibody Titer will be performed at an additional charge (CPT code(s): 86256). | |||||||||||||||
| 262 | Parietal Cell Antibody, ELISA | 86255 | Evaluating patients suspected of having pernicious anemia or immune-mediated deficiency of vitamin B12 with or without megaloblastic anemia | If Parietal Cell Antibody Screen is positive, Parietal Cell Antibody Titer will be performed at an additional charge (CPT code(s): 86256) | |||||||||||||||
| 265 | Anti-Streptolysin O Antibody (ASO) | 86060 | This test is a sensitive test for recent streptococcal infection. A rise in ASO begins about one week after infection and peaks two to four weeks later. ASO levels do not rise with cutaneous infections. In the absence of complications or reinfection, the ASO level will fall to preinfection levels within 6 to 12 months. Over 80 percent of patients with acute rheumatic fever and 95 percent of patients with acute glomerulonephritis due to streptococci have elevated levels of ASO. | ||||||||||||||||
| 266 | Striated Muscle Antibody with Reflex to Titer | 86255, 86256 | Anti-skeletal muscle antibody titers of greater than 1: 80 have been reported to be present in the serum of 30 percent of patients with Myasthenia Gravis, 95 percent of patients with Myasthenia Gravis and thymoma, and 25 percent of patients with thymoma. | ||||||||||||||||
| 269 | Arsenic, Blood | 82175 | ThisAlternative | ||||||||||||||||
| 272 | Nortriptyline | 80335 | Nortriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant. Therapeutic drug levels are monitored to assist the physician assessing therapeutic response and to avoid toxicity. | ||||||||||||||||
| 297 | C1 Inhibitor, Functional | 86161 | C1 esterase is decreased in angioedema. The inherited form is usually diagnosed in the first two decades of life. The acquired form affects primarily adults with autoimmune or lymphoproliferative disorders. Approximately 15 percent of patients with hereditary angioedema have a normal concentration of the protein but it is dysfunctional. | ||||||||||||||||
| 298 | C1 Esterase Inhibitor, Protein | 86160 | The C1 esterase inhibitor protein is a normal constituent of serum which functions as a serine proteinase inhibitor of the serpin family. The C1 esterase inhibitor inhibits the complement proteases C1r and C1s, as well as the proteases Kallikrein, factor XIa, XIIa and plasmin of the blood clotting system. The concentration of C1 esterase inhibitor protein is reduced to 10-30 percent of normal in patients with angioedema secondary to C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency (85 percent of patients with hereditary angioedema (HAE)); in 15 percent of patients with HAE, the concentrations of the inhibitor protein is normal but function is markedly reduced. | ||||||||||||||||
| 299 | Cadmium, Blood | 82300 | Cadmium is a naturally occurring element that is mined and used in industrial production because of its durability. Excessive cadmium exposure can damage lungs, kidneys, and the digestive tract. | ||||||||||||||||
| 305 | Caffeine, Serum | 80155 | Coffee, tea and other beverages may contain caffeine. Caffeine is a methylxanthine found in over the counter products and in prescription medications. Small premature infants with mild respiratory distress shortly after birth may be treated with theophylline or caffeine. In neonates, a significant amount of theophylline is converted to caffeine. Since the demethylation pathway of theophylline is relatively undeveloped, caffeine levels may be elevated. Caffeine clearance rates typically reach adult values at about 3-4 months of age. | ||||||||||||||||
| 306 | 82330 | The ionized calcium is determined by an ion selective electrode methodology. The result that is generated is pH adjusted. The result is empirically based on a measured pH and ionized calcium concentration normalized to a pH of 7.40. This calculation compensates for in vitro changes in pH due to loss of CO2 through specimen handling. Ionized calcium represents the true bioavailable" calcium in the circulation. In situations where the total calcium is normal but does not fit the clinical picture | Saturday | ||||||||||||||||
| 309 | Carboxyhemoglobin, Blood | 82375 | Carbon monoxide is the most common of the gaseous poisons. Malfunctioning or poorly ventilated heating appliances and internal combustion engines are frequent causes of carbon monoxide poisoning. Carbon monoxide combines reversibly with hemoglobin in a manner almost identical to oxygen resulting in a decrease in the amount of oxygen carried by hemoglobin. Accidental poisoning can occur even at low levels (greater than 0.01 percent) of CO in the atmosphere with prolonged exposure. | ||||||||||||||||
| 314 | Catecholamines, Plasma | 82384 | Diagnosis of pheochromocytoma and araganglioma, as an auxiliary test to fractionated plasma and urine metanephrine measurements (plasma metanephrine is the preferred test for this diagnosis) Diagnosis and follow-up of patients with neuroblastoma and related tumors, as an auxiliary test to urine vanillylmandelic acid and homovanillic acid measurements Evaluation of patients with autonomic dysfunction or failure or autonomic neuropathy. | Dopamine, Epinephrine, Norepinephrine and Total Catecholamines (calculated) | |||||||||||||||
| 326 | Ceruloplasmin | 82390 | Decreased levels of ceruloplasmin are found in Wilson's Disease, fulminant liver failure, intestinal malabsorption, renal failure resulting in proteinuria, chronic active hepatitis and malnutrition. Elevated levels are found in primary biliary cirrhosis, pregnancy (first trimester), oral contraceptive use and in acute inflammatory conditions since ceruloplasmin is an acute phase reactant. | ||||||||||||||||
| 345 | COBALT, SERUM/PLASMA | Cobalt - See available Test Resources | |||||||||||||||||
| 346 | Factor VII Activity, Clotting | 85230 | Factor VII is a vitamin K-dependent serine protease synthesized in the liver. It is a component of the extrinsic coagulation scheme, measured by the prothrombin time. Plasma biological half-life is about 3 to 6 hours. Deficiency may result in a bleeding diathesis. Diagnosing congenital deficiency of coagulation factor VII. Evaluating acquired deficiencies associated with liver disease, oral anticoagulant therapy, and vitamin K deficiency. Determining degree of anticoagulation with warfarin to correlate with level of protein C. Investigation of a prolonged prothrombin time. | ||||||||||||||||
| 347 | Factor VIII Activity, Coagulation | 85240 | Diagnosing hemophilia A, Diagnosing von Willebrand disease when measured with the von Willebrand factor (VWF) antigen and VWF activity. Diagnosing acquired deficiency states, and Investigation of prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time. Factor VIII is synthesized in the liver, and perhaps in other tissues. It is a coagulation cofactor which circulates bound to von Willebrand factor and is part of the intrinsic coagulation pathway. The biological half-life is 9 to 18 hours (average is 12 hours). Congenital factor VIII decrease is the cause of hemophilia A which has an incidence of 1 in 10,000 and is inherited in a recessive sex-linked manner on the X chromosome. Severe deficiency (<1 percent) characteristically demonstrates as hemarthrosis, deep-tissue bleeding, excessive bleeding with trauma and cchymoses. Factor VIII may be decreased in von Willebrand disease. Acquired deficiency states also occur. Antibodies specific for factor VIII are the most commonly occurring specific inhibitors of coagulation factors and can produce serious bleeding disorders (acquired hemophilia). Factor VIII is highly susceptible to proteolytic inactivation, with the potential for spuriously decreased ass. | ||||||||||||||||
| 361 | Coombs, Direct | 86880 | The DAT (Direct Coomb's test) is positive if red cells have been coated, in vivo, with immunoglobulin, complement, or both. A positive result can occur in immune-mediated red cell destruction, autoimmune hemolytic anemia, a transfusion reaction or in patients receiving certain drugs. | ||||||||||||||||
| 362 | Factor XII Activity, Clotting, Coagulation | 85280 | Diagnosing deficiency of coagulation factor XII. Determining cause of prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time. Factor XII is synthesized in the liver. Its biological half-life is 40 to 50 hours. Factor XII is a component of the contact activation system and is involved in both intrinsic pathway and fibrinolytic system. Factor XII deficiency is often discovered when activated partial thromboplastin time is found to be unexpectedly long. The deficiency causes no known bleeding disorder. An association between severe factor XII deficiency and thrombosis risk has been proposed, but not proven. | ||||||||||||||||
| 363 | Copper, Serum/Plasma | 82525 | Copper is an essential element that is a cofactor of many enzymes. Copper metabolism is disturbed in Wilson's disease, Menkes disease, primary biliary cirrhosis, and Indian childhood cirrhosis. Copper concentrations increase in acute phase reactions and during the third trimester of pregnancy. Copper concentrations are decreased with nephrosis, malabsorption, and malnutrition. Copper concentrations are also useful to monitor patients, especially preterm newborns, on nutritional supplementation. Results of copper are often interpreted together with ceruloplasmin. | ||||||||||||||||
| 388 | Culture, CSF | 87070, 87205 | Cerebrospinal fluid cultures are of importance in the diagnosis of bacterial meningitis, an inflammation of the meninges. The most common causes of this life threatening condition are E. coli and Group B streptococci in neonates, H. influenzae (2 months-5 years), N. meningitidis (all ages, most common in older children and young adults) and S. pneumoniae (all ages). | Aerobic culture and Gram Stain. If culture is positive, identification will be performed at an additional charge (CPT code(s): 87077 or 87140 or 87143 or 87147 or 87149). Antibiotic susceptibilities are only performed when appropriate (CPT code(s): 87181 or87184 or 87185 or 87186). | |||||||||||||||
| 389 | Culture, Blood | 87040 | Bacterial sepsis constitutes one of the most serious infectious diseases. The detection of microorganisms in a patient's blood has importance in the diagnosis and prognosis of endocarditis, septicemia, or chronic bacteremia. | Aerobic culture, anaerobic culture. If culture is positive, identification will be performed at an additional charge (CPT code(s): 87076 or 87106 or 87077 or 87140 or 87143 or 87147 or 87149).Antibiotic susceptibilities are only performed when appropriate (CPT code(s): 87181 or 87184 or 87185 or 87186). | |||||||||||||||
| 391 | VITAMIN B7 | 84591 | |||||||||||||||||
| 394 | Culture, Throat | 87070 | The significance of any isolate in pure or mixed culture must be assessed with respect to the source cultured, the organism's pathogenic potential, the possibility of colonization versus infection, and the number of other organisms recovered in the same culture. This test may be useful in the detection of agents of epiglottis and thrush and A. haemolyticum. | If culture is positive, identification will be performed at an additional charge (CPT code(s): 87077 or 87140 or 87143 or 87147 or 87149). Antibiotic susceptibilities are only performed when appropriate (CPT code(s): 87181 or 87184 or 87185 or 87186). | |||||||||||||||
| 395 | Urine Culture and Sensitivity | 87086, 87088 | This culture is designed to quantitate the growth of significant bacteria when collected by the Clean Catch Guidelines or from indwelling catheters. Quantitative culturing of urine is an established tool to differentiate significant bacteruria from contamination introduced during voiding. This test has a reference range of less than 1,000 bacteria per mL. More than 95 percent of Urinary Tract Infections (UTI) are attributed to a single organism. Infecting organisms are usually present at greater that 100,000 per mL, but a lower density may be clinically important. In cases of UTI where more than one organism is present, the predominant organism is usually significant and others are probably urethral or collection contaminants. When multiple organisms are isolated from patients with indwelling catheters, UTI is doubtful and colonization likely | If culture is positive, CPT code(s): 87086 (each isolate) will be added with an additional charge. Identification will be performed at an additional charge (CPT code(s): 87077 or 87140 or 87143 or 87147 or 87149). Antibiotic susceptibilities are only performed when appropriate (CPT code(s): 87181 or 87184 or 87185 or 87186). | |||||||||||||||
| 403 | Cytomegalovirus Ab, IgG | 86644 | CMV infections are common and usually asymptomatic. In patients who are immunocompromised, CMV may cause severe disseminated disease. CMV may cause birth defects in a minority of infected newborns. CMV IgG antibodies may represent prior exposure or recent infection. | ||||||||||||||||
| 426 | Eosinophil Count, Nasal | 89190 | Screening test to aid in diagnosis of allergic rhinitis. | ||||||||||||||||
| 427 | Erythropoietin(EPO) | 82668 | An aid in distinguishing between primary and secondary polycythemia Differentiating between appropriate secondary polycythemia (eg, high-altitude living, pulmonary disease, tobacco use) and inappropriate secondary polycythemia (eg, tumors). Identifying candidates for erythropoietin (EPO) replacement therapy (eg, chronic renal failure). Evaluating patients undergoing EPO replacement therapy who demonstrate an inadequate hematopoietic response. | ||||||||||||||||
| 433 | Complement Component C2 | 86160 | The complement system is critical to inflammatory responses. C2 is a component of the classical pathway. Decreased concentrations are observed in patients with immune complex diseases such as systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and immune complex-induced vasculitis. | ||||||||||||||||
| 439 | Estrogens, Total | 82672 | Estrogens are secreted by the gonads, adrenal glands, and placenta. Total estrogens provide an overall picture of estrogen status for men and women. | Estrone Estradiol Total | |||||||||||||||
| 442 | Stone Risk Diagnostic Profile | 82140, 82340, 82507, 82570, 83735, 83945, 83986, 84105, 84133, 84300, 84392, 84560 | StoneRisk profile is for stone formers with a positive urine culture indicating urinary tract infection (UTI), also for recurrent stone formers or when attending physician deems it medically necessary for the patient to have comprehensive metabolic evaluation. | Calcium, Oxalate, Uric Acid, Citrate, pH, Sodium, Sulfate, Phosphorus, Magnesium, Ammonium, Potassium, Creatinine, Calcium Oxalate, Brushite, Sodium Urate, Struvite, Uric Acid | |||||||||||||||
| 455 | Fecal Fat, Quantitative | 82710 | Diagnose the presence of steatorrhea, supporting a diagnosis of one of the malabsorption syndromes, including nontropical sprue, Crohn disease, chronic pancreatitis, cystic fibrosis, Whipple disease, or tuberculous enteropathy | ||||||||||||||||
| 461 | Fibrinogen Activity, Clauss | 85384 | Diagnosis of homozygous and heterozygous fibrinogen deficiency as well as dysfibrinogenemia; diagnosis of disseminated intravascular coagulation, fibrinogen levels can be used to assess the effectiveness of thrombolytic therapy. | ||||||||||||||||
| 467 | Folate, RBC | 82747 | Folate levels have diagnostic significance in nutritional deficiencies, especially in cases of severe alcoholism, function damage to the upper third of small bowel, pregnancy and various forms of megoblastic anemia. Since serum folate levels are subject to rapid changes reflecting diet and absorption, RBC folate may be a better diagnostic tool since the levels remain fairly constant | ||||||||||||||||
| 469 | Alpha-1-Acid Glycoprotein | 82985 | Alpha-1-acid glycoprotein is an acute phase reactant found in a number of conditions. It migrates with the alpha-1 proteins on serum protein electrophoresis. As an acute-phase protein levels of alpha-1-acid glycoprotein are elevated during infections as well as acute and chronic inflammatory processes (eg, Crohn's disease). In these cases a highly sensitive assessment of the condition of the patient can be obtained by preparing a prognostic index of alpha1-acid glycoprotein and other parameters such as CRP. 1-3 Patients with injuries, burns, or tumors exhibit elevated concentrations. Patients with chronic renal failure are found to have high concentrations of alpha1-acid glycoprotein, with no major difference reported between dialyzed and nondialyzed patients. Diminished concentrations due to restricted production of alpha1-acid glycoprotein are found in patients with chronic liver diseases. Low serum concentrations due to increased excretion of the protein are associated with nephritic syndrome. | ||||||||||||||||
| 478 | Gastrin | 82941 | Investigation of patients with achlorhydria or pernicious anemia. Investigation of patients suspected of having Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Diagnosis of gastrinoma; basal and secretin-stimulated serum gastrin measurements are the best laboratory tests for gastrinoma. | ||||||||||||||||
| 498 | Hepatitis B Surface Antigen with Reflex to Confirmation | ||||||||||||||||||
| 500 | Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase (G6PD) Qn | 82955 | G-6-PD is the most common enzyme deficiency in the world. Newborns with G-6-PD may have prolonged and more pronounced neonatal jaundice than other newborns. Older individuals are subject to hemolytic anemia that can be induced by some foods,drugs, and infections. | ||||||||||||||||
| 501 | Hepatitis B Core Antibody, Total | 86704 | This assay does not distinguish between Total B core antibody IgG and IgM detected before or at the onset of symptoms; however, such reactivity can persist for years after illness, and may even outlast anti-HBs. Occasionally Hepatitis B core antibodymay be the only marker of either current or past Hepatitis B infection. | ||||||||||||||||
| 502 | Haptoglobin | 83010 | Increased haptoglobin is found in hemolytic disease, hepatocellular disease and infectious mononucleosis. Increased level is found in inflammatory disease in the presence of tissue necrosis and in general acute inflammatory conditions. | ||||||||||||||||
| 508 | Hepatitis A Antibody, Total | 86708 | Hepatitis A Virus (HAV) antibodies indicate prior or acute infection with, or immunization to, Hepatitis A virus. | ||||||||||||||||
| 511 | Hemoglobin A2, Quantitative | 83021 | Differential diagnosis of thalassemia and anemias. In B-thalassemia trait A2 is elevated. | ||||||||||||||||
| 521 | Growth Hormone (GH) | 83003 | Measurement of GH is primarily of interest in the diagnosis and treatment of various forms of inappropriate growth hormone secretion. Growth hormone measurements in children are used in the evaluation of short stature and help differentiate low GH production from other sources of growth failure. Stimulation and suppression tests are often more meaningful than random measurements. | ||||||||||||||||
| 523 | 5-Hydroxyindoleacetic Acid (5-HIAA), 24-Hour Urine | 83497 | ValuesSpecimen Stability Unpreserved urine Room temperature: Unacceptable Refrigerated: Unacceptable Frozen: 30 days | ||||||||||||||||
| 528 | HLA-B27 Antigen | 86812 | HLA-B27 is found in 90 percent of patients with ankylosing spondylitis and 80 percent in Reiter's disease. Ankylosing spondylitis affects 1 in 1000 caucasians. Ankylosing spondylitis is 10 times more common among individuals with HLA-B27 compared to individuals without this antigen. | ||||||||||||||||
| 541 | Immunoglobulin D, Qn, Serum | 82784 | Antibodies or immunoglobulins (Ig) are formed by plasma cells as a humoral immune response to antigens. The first antibodies formed after antigen stimulation are of the IgM class, followed later by IgG and also IgA antibodies. IgD normally occurs in serum in trace amounts. Changes in IgD concentration are used as a marker of changes in the size of the clone of monoclonal IgD plasma cells. | ||||||||||||||||
| 549 | Immunofixation, Serum | 82784, 86334 | Monoclonal increases in IgG or IgA are often associated with diseases such as multiple myeloma, lymphomas or leukemia. A monoclonal increase in IgM is commonly associated with Waldenström's macroglobulinemia. | ||||||||||||||||
| 555 | Hepatitis Be Antigen | 87350 | HBeAg indicates active HBV replication. Infectivity is evaluated based on HBeAg and HBsAg. When HBeAg persists much longer than 10 weeks, the patient is likely to develop chronic hepatitis and be a carrier. | ||||||||||||||||
| 556 | Hepatitis Be Antibody | 86707 | HBeAb appears in the early convalescence of HBV infection. With carrier state and chronic hepatitis, HBeAb may not develop. | ||||||||||||||||
| 564 | Haloperidol | 80173 | Monitoring the haloperidol concentration is used to assure compliance and avoid toxicity of this antipsychotic drug. | ||||||||||||||||
| 568 | Intrinsic Factor Blocking Antibody | 86340 | Intrinsic Factor Blocking Antibody - Intrinsic Factor, produced by cells lining the stomach, binds Vitamin B12 (cyanocobalamin) to facilitate absorption of the vitamin. Blocking antibody impedes the action of Intrinsic Factor as observed in approximately half of the patients who develop pernicious anemia. | ||||||||||||||||
| 578 | Alcohol, Isopropyl, Blood | 80320 (HCPCS: G0480) | Isopropyl alcohol has twice the CNS depressant action as ethanol. Severe intoxication can lead to coma or death. There is no endogenous isopropyl alcohol present in the body. Isopropyl alcohol metabolizes to acetone. If isopropyl swab is used to disinfect skin before drawing a specimen, isopropyl alcohol may be detected without any acetone. | Acetone, Isopropyl Alcohol (Isopropanol) | |||||||||||||||
| 585 | Lactic Acid, Plasma | 83605 | Lactic acid is the endproduct of the anaerobic metabolism of glucose. The blood lactic acid concentration is affected by its production in muscle cells and erythrocytes and its rate of metabolism in the liver. During exercise, blood lactate can increase up to ten times of normal levels. | ||||||||||||||||
| 599 | Lead, Blood | 83655 | Blood lead level analysis is performed to evaluate the body burden of lead. | ||||||||||||||||
| 613 | Lithium, Serum | 80178 | Lithium is used to treat manic-depressive disorders and the manic phase of affective disorders, including mania. The therapeutic window is relatively small. Therapeutic drug monitoring is useful to optimize dose and avoid toxicity. | ||||||||||||||||
| 618 | Complement, Total (CH50) | 86162 | CH50 is a screening test for total complement activity. Levels of complement may be depressed in genetic deficiency, liver disease, chronic glomerulonephritis, rheumatoid arthritis, hemolytic anemias, graft rejection, systemic lupus erythematosis, acute glomerulonephritis, subacute bacterial endocarditis and cryoglobulinemia. Elevated complement may be found in acute inflammatory conditions, leukemia, Hodgkin's Disease, sarcoma, and Behcet's Disease. | ||||||||||||||||
| 620 | Thyroid Cascade Panel | 84436, 84443, 84479 | TSH , TT3, FT4, TPO | ||||||||||||||||
| 623 | Magnesium, RBC | 83735 | Clinical Significance: Magnesium is an essential trace element. Deficiency leads to irritability, neuromuscular abnormalities, cardiac and renal damage. Its salts are used as antacids and cathartics. Excessive amount may cause CNS depression, loss of muscle tone, respiratory and cardiac arrest. | ||||||||||||||||
| 636 | Mercury, Blood | 83825 | Clinical Significance: The primary clinical utility of blood mercury is the determination of abnormal exposures seen at levels over 20 μg/L. Mercury is absorbed via the respiratory tract (mercury vapors), skin, and gastrointestinal tract. Mercury poisoning can cause kidney damage. The chronic effect of mercury poisoning includes inflammation of mouth and gums, loosening of the teeth, kidney damage, nervousness, depression, and spasms. Specimen Stability: Room temperature: 5 days Refrigerated: 7 days Frozen: Unacceptable Reject Criteria: Clotted specimen. | ||||||||||||||||
| 648 | Methotrexate (MTX), Serum | 80299 | Methotrexate is an antimetabolite used in the treatment of certain neoplastic diseases, psoriasis and rheumatoid arthritis. In combination with other chemotherapeutic agents, high dose methotrexate doses followed by leucovorin rescue may be effective in prolonging relapse-free survival in patients with non-metastatic osteosarcoma. Methotrexate levels are monitored to assess toxicity. | ||||||||||||||||
| 657 | Mucin Clot, Synovial Fluid | 83872 | Test to aid in differential diagnosis of diseases of joints and joint fluid. | ||||||||||||||||
| 659 | Mycoplasma pneumoniae, IgG Ab | 86738 | Mycoplasma are the smallest of the free-living organisms. M. pneumoniae causes approximately 10-20 percent of all cases of pneumonia. These pneumonias that can affect otherwise healthy individuals, are commonly referred to as walking and atypical pneumonias. | ||||||||||||||||
| 681 | Ova and Parasites, Stool, Concentrate and Permanent Smear | 87177, 87209 | Ova and Parasites, Concentrate and Permanent Smear - Diseases caused by human parasites remain on a worldwide basis among the principle causes of morbidity and mortality. Correct diagnosis of intestinal parasitic infection depends on proper collection, transport, detection and identification of parasites in stool specimens. Symptoms range from malaise to death. Treatment is dependent upon examining multiple stool specimens due to the erratic shed rates of some parasites. | Ova and Parasite Concentrate Result, Trichrome Result | |||||||||||||||
| 683 | Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme | 82164 | ThisAlternative Specimen(s) Plasma collected in: Sodium heparin (green-top) tube or lithium heparin (green-top) tube | ||||||||||||||||
| 706 | Rotavirus Antigen Detection | 87425 | Rotavirus infection is the major cause of gastroenteritis in children from six months to two years. Infection occurs in both sporadic and epidemic forms and is responsible for approximately half the cases of diarrhea in infants that require hospitalization worldwide. The peak of rotavirus disease in temperate climates occurs during the cooler months of the year. Rotavirus has also emerged as a cause of enteritis in adults, particularly in elderly immunosuppressed patients. | ||||||||||||||||
| 729 | Porphyrins, Qn, 24 Hr Ur. | 84120 | Porphyria is a group of distinct disorders characterized by the abnormal accumulation of porphyrins or porphyrin precursors. Porphyrin Fractionation of Urine is useful in diagnosing porphyrin cutanea tarda, hereditary coproporphyria, and variegate porphyria. | Coproporphyrin I, Coproporphyrin III, Heptacarboxyporphyrin, Hexacarboxyporphyrin, Pentacarboxyporphyrin, Total Porphyrins, Uroporphyrin I, Uroporphyrin III | |||||||||||||||
| 751 | Primidone | 80188, 80184 | Assessing compliance; Monitoring for appropriate therapeutic levels of primidone and phenobarbital; Assessing toxicity | Primidone, Phenobarbital | |||||||||||||||
| 755 | Protein, Total, CSF | 84157 | The CSF normally contains less than 1 percent of the amount of protein present in plasma. Clinical disorders associated with increased CSF protein include traumatic spinal tap, increased blood-CSF permeability due to meningitis or hemorrhage, endocrine/metabolic disorders, drug toxicity, and CSF circulation disorders. Clinical disorders associated with decreased CSF total protein include CSF leakage from dural tear, increased intracranial pressure, removal of CSF, hyperthyroidism and leukemia. Young children (6 months to 2 years) also have decreased CSF total protein. | ||||||||||||||||
| 762 | Erythrocyte Protoporphyrin (EP) | 84202 | Please note that EP testing is not recommended for detection of pediatric lead poisoning. For occupational safety and health administration (OSHA) medical surveillance of a worker exposed to lead, please refer to zinc protoporphyrin (ZPP). | ||||||||||||||||
| 766 | Quinidine | 80194 | Quinidine is used in the treatment of acute and chronic supraventricular arrhythmias and ectopic rhythm disturbances. Quinidineclearance can be altered by changes in plasma proteins and in renal and/or hepatic dysfunction. Both quinidine and the relatedisomer quinine possess antimalarial schizonticide activity. Quinidine levels are monitored to assure adequate therapeutic levelsare achieved and to avoid toxicity. | ||||||||||||||||
| 767 | Amino Acid Analysis, LC/MS, Plasma | 82139 | Amino acids serve many functions including as building blocks for proteins, neurotransmitters, precursors to hormones, and enzyme co-factors. More than 70 disorders of amino acid metabolism have been described. The clinical manifestations of these disorders are diverse. | 1-Methylhistidine, 3-Methylhistidine, Alanine, Alpha-Amino Adipic Acid, Alpha-Amino Butyric Acid, Arginine, Asparagine, Aspartic Acid, Beta-Alanine, Beta-Amino Isobutyric Acid, Citrulline, Cystathionine, Ethanolamine, Gamma-Amino Butyric Acid, GlutamicAcid, Glutamine, Glycine, Histidine, Homocystine, Hydroxyproline, Isoleucine, Leucine, Lysine, Methionine, Ornithine, Phenylalanine, Proline, Sarcosine, Serine, Taurine, Threonine, Tryptophan, Tyrosine, Valine | |||||||||||||||
| 793 | Reticulocyte Count, Blood | 85045 | Assessing erythropoietic bone marrow activity in anemia and other hematologic conditions.Reticulocytes are immature erythrocytes (RBC) that have been released into the peripheral blood from the bone marrow after extrusion of their nucleus. The reticulocyte contains residual polyribosomes used in the formation of hemoglobin in the developing erythrocyte. | ||||||||||||||||
| 795 | Antibody Screen, RBC, Reflex to Identification, Titer, and Antigen Typing | 86850 | ThisThe minimum amount will not allow for antibody identification if the antibody screen is positive. | If Antibody Screen is positive, Antibody Identification, Titer and Antigen Typing will be performed at an additional charge (CPT code(s): 86870 (x) number of panel(s) performed, 86886 (x) number of titer(s) performed and 86905 (x) number of antigen typing(s). Based on reactions presenting from Antibody Identification, then 36668 - Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT) with Reflex to Anti-C3 and Anti-IgG may be performed at an additional charge (CPT code(s): 86880).If 36668 - Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT) is positive, then 36669 - Anti-C3 and Anti-IgG will be performed at an additional charge (CPT code(s): 86880 x2). | |||||||||||||||
| 805 | Salicylate, Serum | 80329 | Salicylates are used in the treatment of fever, analgesia and in the treatment of acute rheumatic fever, rheumatoid arthritis and for inhibition of platelet aggregation in patients with CAD. When treating rheumatoid arthritis, salicylates reduce the inflammation in joint tissues. Salicylate levels are monitored to assess toxicity. | ||||||||||||||||
| 810 | Vitamin B12 and Folate | 82607, 82746 | Vitamin B12 and Folic acid | ||||||||||||||||
| 825 | Sickle Cell Screen | 85660 | Screening test to determine presence of sickling hemoglobins, e.g., Hemoglobin S; Hemoglobin C, Harlem; Hemoglobin Georgetown. | ||||||||||||||||
| 833 | Pathologist Review of Peripheral Smear | 85060 | To assist in diagnosis of hematological disorders. | ||||||||||||||||
| 852 | Beta-2-Microglobulin, Serum | 82232 | Beta-2-microglobulin normally passes through the glomerulus into the proximal tubule where much of it is reabsorbed. Serum levels are therefore an index of glomerular function. When impaired, serum levels rise in inverse ratio to glomerular filtration rate. Increased amounts of beta-2-microglobulin are excreted in several renal disorders, e.g., Balkan nephropathy, heavy metal poisoning and renal tubular disease due to therapeutic agents. Serial levels of beta-2-microglobulin in serum and urine are used to evaluate transplant viability and anticipate rejection. Following a successful graft, serum levels decline toward normal. Increasing serum levels provide an early sign of rejection. Elevated levels are also noted in lymphproliferative disorders, neoplasms (malignant and benign), inflammatory disease, and autoimmune diseases such as systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and Sjogren's disease. | ||||||||||||||||
| 853 | Alpha-1-Antitrypsin (AAT) Phenotype | 82104 | More than 40 phenotypes of Alpha-1-Antitrypsin (AAT) exist. The inherited deficiency, seen most often as the ZZ, SS and SZ phenotypes, is associated with neonatal hepatitis and infantile cirrhosis. In adults, these phenotypes are associated with chronic lung disease, including emphysema and chronic bronchitis. Definitive analysis of hereditary alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency, which is associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) (panacinar emphysema), hepatic cirrhosis, and hepatoma. Cholestasis with neonatal hepatitis is found in a minority of neonates with alpha1AT deficiency. | ||||||||||||||||
| 870 | Thyroxine Binding Globulin | 84442 | Thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG), a glycoprotein produced in the liver, binds both thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3) with high affinity. Because TBG accounts for 76 percent of plasma protein thyroxine-binding activity, an increase or decrease in its circulating level alters total concentrations of T4 and T3 in blood, leading to potential confusion with true thyroid gland dysfunction. A number of diseases and medications, as well as inherited alterations in TBG gene expression, can change the serum TBG concentration. Measurement of TBG is useful in distinguishing quantitative TBG derangements from thyroid dysfunction. This analyte is elevated with estrogen therapy (especially oral contraceptive agents), during pregnancy and or hepatitis. Serum TBG may be decreased in cirrhosis, in the nephritic syndrome and by androgens | ||||||||||||||||
| 871 | Culture, Mycoplasma hominis/Ureaplasma | 87109 | Ureaplasma urealyticum and Mycoplasma hominis are primarily associated with genital tract colonization and disease in adults and respiratory tract colonization and disease in newborns. Though controversial, these organisms have been associated with endometritis, chorioamnionitis, premature rupture of membranes, stillbirth, premature birth, low birth weight, post-partuminfections, and infertility. Of particular concern is the causal relationship between central nervous system infections in the premature newborn and U. urealyticum. | ||||||||||||||||
| 878 | Theophylline | 80198 | Theophylline is used in the treatment of bronchial asthma as well as in the treatment of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and episodes of prolonged apnea in pre-term infants. Theophylline levels are monitored to assure adequate therapeutic levels are achieved and to avoid toxicity | ||||||||||||||||
| 906 | Coccidioides Antibodies, Complement Fixation (CF), Serum | 86635 | |||||||||||||||||
| 918 | Viscosity, Serum | 85810 | High serum viscosity may be most commonly observed in patients with Waldenström's macroglobulinemia and multiple myeloma. Patients with high viscosity may have capillary occlusion, stasis hypoxia, and acidosis | ||||||||||||||||
| 920 | Vasoactive Intestinal Polypeptide (VIP), Plasma | 84586 | Vasoactive intestinal polypeptide (VIP) was originally isolated from porcine small intestine and was recognized by its potent vasodilator activity. This brain/gut hormone has widespread distribution and is present in neuronal cell bodies localized in the central nervous system, digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts, exocrine glands, and thyroid and adrenal glands. VIP has a ide scope of biological actions. The main effects of VIP include relaxation of smooth muscle (bronchial and vascular dilation), stimulation of gastrointestinal water and electrolyte secretion, and release of pancreatic hormones. VIP-producing tumors (VIPomas) are rare; most (90 percent) are located in the pancreas. Watery diarrhea, hypokalemia, and achlorhydria are key symptoms. | ||||||||||||||||
| 921 | Vitamin A, Serum | 84590 | Vitamin A is critical for vision, growth, and many cell functions. High concentrations of vitamin A are seen with renal failure, but this is not associated with toxicity, and excessive ingestion. High concentrations are associated with bone fractures. Low concentrations of vitamin A are consistent with fat malabsorption and rarely due to inadequate diet. Vitamin A, vitamin E, and carotene are always extracted and detected simultaneously. This is a free vitamin A (retinol) | ||||||||||||||||
| 926 | Vitamin B6 , Plasma | 84207 | Test is used to determine vitamin B6 deficiency or overdosage, for monitoring treatment, and to evaluate wellness and health. | ||||||||||||||||
| 929 | Vitamin C (Ascorbic Acid) | 82180 | Vitamin C is an antioxidant involved in connective tissue metabolism, drug-metabolizing systems, and mixed-function oxidase systems to list a few. Vitamin C deficiency causes scurvy; manifestations include impaired formation of mature connective tissue, bleeding into the skin, weakness, fatigue, and depression. | ||||||||||||||||
| 931 | Vitamin E (Tocopherol) | 84446 | Deficiency of vitamin E may cause extensive neuropathy in young children and, in addition, is suspect as a possible cause of motor and sensory neuropathy in older children and in adults. One likely cause of vitamin E deficiency is intestinal malabsorption, resulting from bowel disease, pancreatic disease, or chronic cholestasis. Other causes of malabsorption of vitamin E include celiac disease, cystic fibrosis, and intestinal lymphangiectasia. | Alpha-Tocopherol, Beta-Gamma-Tocopherol | |||||||||||||||
| 938 | Histoplasma Antibody, Complement Fixation | 86698 | Used for the diagnosis and prognosis of histoplasma infections. Titers ≥1: 32 are highly suggestive of H.capsulatum infection. The CF test is more frequently positive with sera from chronic active pulmonary histoplasmosis than sera from primary active pulmonary disease. | Antibodies to Yeast and Mycelial Antigens | |||||||||||||||
| 945 | Zinc, Plasma | 84630 | Zinc is an essential element involved in a myriad of enzyme systems including wound healing, immune function, and fetal development. Zinc measurements are used to detect and monitor industrial, dietary, and accidental exposure to zinc. Also, zinc measurements may be used to evaluate health and monitor response to treatment. | ||||||||||||||||
| 948 | Zinc Protoporphyrin (ZPP) | 84202 | Evaluate reduction of body iron storage, especially in nonanemic iron deficiency. ZPP is superior to hemoglobin in identifying female blood donors with nonanemic iron deficiency. | ||||||||||||||||
| 951 | Manganese | 83785 | Evaluation of central nervous system symptoms similar to Parkinson disease in manganese miners and processors. Characterization of liver cirrhosis. Therapeutic monitoring in treatment of cirrhosis, parenteral nutrition-related Mn toxicity and environmental exposure to Mn Evaluation of Behcet disease. | ||||||||||||||||
| 973 | Urea Nitrogen, 24-Hour Urine without Creatinine | 84540 | About 80 percent of urinary nitrogen is in the form of urea which is the major end product of protein metabolism. Urea excreted in the urine is the primary method of nitrogen elimination. Conditions associated with increased urine urea nitrogen are hyperthyroidism, high protein diets and post-operative states. Decreased levels are associated with convalescence, liver disease, toxemia and advanced renal disease | ||||||||||||||||
| 981 | Complement Component C1q | 86160 | The complement system is critical to the inflammatory response. C1q concentrations may be decreased in patients with acquired angioedema, immune complex induced vasculitis, and concurrent low concentrations of C1 inhibitor, carcinoma, or lymphoma. | ||||||||||||||||
| 988 | Poliovirus Antibody, Neutralization | 86382 | This sensitive procedure is recommended for vaccine response testing and type-specific serodiagnosis of recent poliovirus infection. It can also serve as an aid for diagnosing immune deficiency disorders. | Poliovirus Types 1, 3 | |||||||||||||||
| 1002 | CBC With Differential | 85025 | A complete blood count is used as a screening test for various disease states including anemia, leukemia and inflammatory processes. | WBC, RBC, Hemoglobin, Hematocrit, MCV, MCH, MCHC, RDW, Platelet Count, MPV and Differential (Absolute and Percent - Neutrophils, Lymphocytes, Monocytes, Eosinophils, and Basophils) If abnormal cells are noted on a manual review of the peripheral blood smear or if the automated differential information meets specific criteria, a full manual differential will be performed. | |||||||||||||||
| 1003 | CBC Without Differential | 85025 | A complete blood count is used as a screening test for various disease states including anemia, leukemia and inflammatory processes. | WBC, RBC, Hemoglobin, Hematocrit, MCV, MCH, MCHC, RDW, Platelet Count, MPV and Differential (Absolute and Percent - Neutrophils, Lymphocytes, Monocytes, Eosinophils, and Basophils) | |||||||||||||||
| 1010 | Hemoglobin | 85018 | Usual method for determining anemia. Used to calculate indices. | ||||||||||||||||
| 1015 | Hematocrit | 85014 | Usual method for determining anemia. Used to calculate indices. | ||||||||||||||||
| 1633 | Calcium, Random Urine with Creatinine | 82310 | Urinary calcium reflects dietary intake, rate of calcium absorption by the intestine and bone resorption. Urinary calcium is used primarily to evaluate parathyroid function and the effects of vitamin D. A significant number of patients with primary hyperparathyroidism will have elevated urinary calcium. However, there are other clinical entities that may be associated with increased urine calcium: Sarcoidosis, Paget's disease of bone, vitamin D intoxication, hyperthyroidism and glucocorticoid excess. Decreased urine calcium is seen with thiazide diuretics, vitamin D deficiency and familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia. | ||||||||||||||||
| 1635 | Calcium, 24-Hour Urine with Creatinine | 82340, 82570 | Urinary calcium reflects dietary intake, rate of calcium absorption by the intestine and bone resorption. Urinary calcium is used primarily to evaluate parathyroid function and the effects of vitamin D. A significant number of patients with primary hyperparathyroidism will have elevated urinary calcium. However, there are other clinical entities that may be associated with increased urine calcium: Sarcoidosis, Paget's disease of bone, vitamin D intoxication, hyperthyroidism and glucocorticoid excess. Decreased urine calcium is seen with thiazide diuretics, vitamin D deficiency and familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia. | ||||||||||||||||
| 1648 | 5-Hydroxyindoleacetic Acid (5-HIAA), Random Urine | 82570, 83497 | Values above 10 mg/24 hours occur in carcinoid syndrome. Slight elevations also occur in nontropical sprue and after reserpine administration. Drugs which can interfere with testing due to physiologic response: acetaminophen, alpha and beta blockers, atenolol, bromocriptine, broncholdilators, clonidine, digoxin, isoniazid, L-dopa, labetelol, methyldopa, monoamine oxidase inhibitors, nitroglycerin, sympathomimetic amines, phenobarbital, phenothiazines, phentolamine, reserpine, salicylates, tricyclic antidepressants. | Includes Creatinine | |||||||||||||||
| 1710 | VMA (Vanillylmandelic Acid), Random Urine | 82570, 84585 | Clinical Significance: Urinary vanillylmandelic acid is useful in diagnosing neuroblastoma, one of the most common tumors in the pediatric population.Specimen Stability: Room temperature: 10 days Refrigerated: 14 daysFrozen: 1 year | Creatinine | |||||||||||||||
| 1744 | Uric Acid, Urine, Random | 82570, 84560 | Urine uric acid may supplement serum uric acid testing when trying to identify conditions in which there is alteration of uric acid production or excretion, e.g., gout, leukemia, renal disease. The amount of uric acid excreted may be useful in treating asymptomatic hyperuricemia. Measurement of urine uric acid is important in the investigation of urolithiasis. | Uric Acid, Urine with creatinine | |||||||||||||||
| 1769 | Clozapine | 80159 | Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic agent. Norclozapine has minimal therapeutic activity. | Clozapine and Norclozapine | |||||||||||||||
| 1776 | Immunoglobulin G, Qn, Serum | 82784 | Detecting or monitoring of monoclonal gammopathies and immune deficiencies. The gamma globulin band as seen in conventional serum protein electrophoresis consists of 5 immunoglobulins. In normal serum, about 80 percent is immunoglobulin G (IgG). Elevations of IgG may be due to polyclonal immunoglobulin production. Monoclonal elevations of IgG characterize multiple myeloma. Monoclonal gammopathies of all types may lead to a spike in the gamma globulin zone seen on serum protein electrophoresis. Decreased immunoglobulin levels are found in patients with congenital deficiencies. | ||||||||||||||||
| 1777 | Protein C Activity | 85303 | As an initial test for evaluating patients suspected of having congenital protein C deficiency, including those with personal or family histories of thrombotic events.Because coagulation testing and its interpretation is complex, Mayo Medical Laboratories suggests ordering THRMP / Thrombophilia Profile.Detecting and confirming congenital Type I and Type II protein C deficiencies, detecting and confirming congenital homozygous protein C deficiency, and identifying decreased functional protein C of acquired origin (eg, due to oral anticoagulant effect, vitamin K deficiency, liver disease, intravascular coagulation and fibrinolysis/disseminated intravascular coagulation.) | ||||||||||||||||
| 1779 | Protein S Activity | 85306 | Second-order testing for diagnosis of congenital or acquired protein S deficiency for example, as an adjunct to initial testing based on results of protein S antigen assay (free protein S antigen, with or without total protein S antigen assay)Evaluating patients with a history of venous thromboembolism | ||||||||||||||||
| 1792 | Immunoglobulin M, Qn, Serum | 82784 | Detecting or monitoring of monoclonal gammopathies and immune deficiencies. The gamma-globulin band as seen in conventional serum protein electrophoresis consists of 5 immunoglobulins. In normal serum, about 5 percent is immunoglobulin M (IgM). Elevations of IgM may be due to polyclonal immunoglobulin production. Monoclonal elevations of IgM occur in macroglobulinemia. Monoclonal gammopathies of all types may lead to a spike in the gamma-globulin zone seen on serum protein electrophoresis. Decreased immunoglobulin levels are found in patients with congenital deficiency. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2000 | T4, Free Serum | 84439 | Thyroxine (T4) and free T4 are measured together with thyroid-stimulating hormone when thyroid function disorders are suspected. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2005 | T3, Free Serum | 84481 | Free triiodothyronine (T3) is a second- or third-level test of thyroid function; it provides further confirmation of hyperthyroidism, supplementing the tetraiodothyronine (T4), sensitive thyrotropin (sTSH), and total T3 assays. Evaluating clinically euthyroid patients who have an altered distribution of binding proteins. Monitoring thyroid hormone replacement therapy | ||||||||||||||||
| 2006 | Free Thyroxine Index (FTI) | 84436, 84479 | Estimating the amount of circulating free thyroxine (free thyroxine index) using the total thyroxine and thyroid binding capacity (T-uptake). | ||||||||||||||||
| 2010 | TSH | 84443 | Second-order testing for autoimmune thyroid disease, including: -Differential diagnosis of etiology of thyrotoxicosis in patients with ambiguous clinical signs or contraindicated (eg, pregnant orbreast-feeding) or indeterminate thyroid radioisotope scans-Diagnosis of clinically suspected Graves disease (eg, extrathyroidal manifestations of Graves disease: endocrine exophthalmos,pretibial myxedema, thyroid acropachy) but normal thyroid function tests-Determining the risk of neonatal thyrotoxicosis in a fetus of a pregnant female with active or past Graves disease-Differential diagnosis of gestational thyrotoxicosis versus first-trimester manifestation or recurrence of Graves disease-Assessing the risk of Graves disease relapse after antithyroid drug treatmentA combination of TSI / Thyroid-Stimulating Immunoglobulin (TSI), Serum and THYRO / Thyrotropin Receptor Antibody, Serum is useful as an adjunct in the diagnosis of unusual cases of hypothyroidism (eg, Hashitoxicosis). | ||||||||||||||||
| 2015 | PSA | 84153 | Evaluating patients with documented prostate problems in whom multiple prostate-specific antigen tests may be necessary per year. Monitoring patients with a history of prostate cancer as an early indicator of recurrence and response to treatment | ||||||||||||||||
| 2016 | PSA, Free | 84153 | The percentage of measured prostate-specific antigen (PSA) existing in the free form (free: total PSA ratio) is useful in assessing the risk of prostate cancer in patients with borderline or moderately increased total PSA (4.0-10.0 ng/mL) and has been used to help select men who should have follow-up prostate biops | ||||||||||||||||
| 2017 | Prostate Health Panel | 84153, 84154 | In men over 50 years with total PSA between 4.0 and 10.0 ng/mL, the percent free PSA gives an estimate of the probability of cancer. In these circumstances the measurement of the percent free PSA may aid in avoiding unnecessary biopsies. Elevated levels of Prostate Specific Antigen (PSA) have been associated with benign and malignant prostatic disorders. Studies indicate that in men 50 years or older measurement of PSA is a useful addition to the digital rectal exam in the early detection of prostate cancer. In addition, PSA decreases to undetectable levels following complete resection of the tumor and may rise again with recurrent disease or persist with residual disease. Thus, PSA levels may be of assistance in the management of prostate cancer patients. | Total PSA, Free PSA, percent Free PSA (calculated) | |||||||||||||||
| 2018 | Digoxin, Serum | 80162 | Monitoring digoxin therapy. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2020 | T3, Total ( TT3) | 84480 | Second-order testing for hyperthyroidism in patients with low thyroid-stimulating hormone values and normal thyroxine levels Diagnosis of triiodothyronine toxicosis | ||||||||||||||||
| 2030 | T4, Total (TT4) | 84436 | Monitoring treatment with synthetic hormones (synthetic triiodothyronine will cause a low total thyroxine: T4)Monitoring treatment of hyperthyroidism with thiouracil and other antithyroid drugs | ||||||||||||||||
| 2045 | Testosterone,Total | 84402 | Evaluation of men with symptoms or signs of possible hypogonadism, such as loss of libido, erectile dysfunction, gynecomastia, osteoporosis, or infertility.Evaluation of boys with delayed or precocious puberty.Monitoring testosterone replacement therapy.Monitoring antiandrogen therapy (eg, used in prostate cancer, precocious puberty, treatment of idiopathic hirsutism, male-to-female transgender disorders, etc.).Evaluation of women with hirsutism, virilization, and oligoamenorrhea.Evaluation of women with symptoms or signs of possible testosterone deficiency.Evaluation of infants with ambiguous genitalia or virilization. Diagnosis of androgen-secreting tumors. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2050 | Prolactin | 84146 | Aiding in evaluation of pituitary tumors, amenorrhea, galactorrhea, infertility, and hypogonadismMonitoring therapy of prolactin-producing tumors | ||||||||||||||||
| 2060 | Progesterone | 84144 | Ascertaining whether ovulation occurred in a menstrual cycle.Assessment of infertility.Evaluation of abnormal uterine bleeding.Evaluation of placental health in high-risk pregnancy.Determining the effectiveness of progesterone injections when administered to women to help support early pregnancy.Workup of some patients with adrenal disorders. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2070 | Myoglobin, Serum | 83874 | Assessing muscle damage from any cause. Myoglobin is a heme protein found in smooth and skeletal muscles. Serum myoglobin reflects a balance between intravascular release of myoglobin from muscle and renal clearance. Previously serum myoglobin had been advocated as a sensitive marker for early acute myocardial injury (eg, acute myocardial infarction: AMI). However, more recent studies indicate that other newer markers (eg, troponin) provide superior diagnostic utility in detecting early myocardial injury. Elevation of serum myoglobin may occur as a result of muscle trauma, resuscitation, myopathies, AMI, shock, strenuous body activity, or decreased elimination during renal insufficiency. Extreme elevations occur in rhabdomyolysis. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2075 | NT-proBNP | 83880 | B-type natriuretic peptide (brain natriuretic peptide: BNP) is a small, ringed peptide secreted by the heart to regulate blood pressure and fluid balance.(1) This peptide is stored in and secreted predominantly from membrane granules in the heartventricles in a pro form (proBNP). Once released from the heart in response to ventricle volume expansion or pressure overload,the N-terminal (NT) piece of 76 amino acids (NT-proBNP) is rapidly cleaved by the enzymes corin and furin to release the active32-amino acid peptide (BNP).Both BNP and NT-proBNP are markers of atrial and ventricular distension due to increased intracardiac pressure. The New YorkHeart Association (NYHA) developed a 4-stage functional classification system for congestive heart failure (CHF) based on theseverity of the symptoms. Studies have demonstrated that the measured concentrations of circulating BNP and NT-proBNPincrease with the severity of CHF based on the NYHA classification | ||||||||||||||||
| 2080 | Vitamin B12 | 82607 | Investigation of macrocytic anemiaWorkup of deficiencies seen in megaloblastic anemias | ||||||||||||||||
| 2090 | Troponin I | 84484 | Exclusion diagnosis of acute myocardial infarctionTroponin is a complex that regulates the contraction of striated muscle. It consists of 3 subunits (C, T, and I) that are located periodically along the thin filament of the myofibrils. Troponin I inhibits actomyosin ATPase.Troponin I is an inhibitory protein and exhibits in 3 isoforms: cardiac muscle, slow-twitch skeletal muscle, and fast-twitch skeletal muscle. The cardiac form of troponin I has 31 amino acid residues on its N-terminal, not present in the skeletal forms, which allow for specific polyclonal and monoclonal antibody development. The cardiac specificity of this isoform improves the accuracy of diagnosis in patients with acute or chronic skeletal muscle injury and possible concomitant myocardial injury.Troponin I is the only troponin isotope present in the myocardium and is not expressed during any developmental stage in skeletal muscle. Troponin I is released into the bloodstream within hours of the onset of symptoms of myocardial infarction or ischemic damage. It can be detected at 3 to 6 hours following onset of chest pain with peak concentrations at 12 to 16 hours, and remains elevated for 5 to 9 days. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2100 | D-Dimer | 85379 | Excluding the diagnosis of acute pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis, particularly when results of a sensitive D-dimer assay are combined with clinical information, including pretest disease probability(1-4) Diagnosis of intravascular coagulation and fibrinolysis, also known as disseminated intravascular coagulation, especially when combined with clinical information and other laboratory test data (eg, platelet count, assays of clottable fibrinogen and soluble fibrin monomer complex, and clotting time assays-prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time)(5). | ||||||||||||||||
| 2105 | Cortisol AM/PM | 82533 | Discrimination between primary and secondary adrenal insufficiency Cortisol, the main glucocorticoid (representing 75-90 percent of the plasma corticoids) plays a central role in glucose metabolism and in the body's response to stress. Cortisol levels are regulated by adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), which is synthesized by the pituitary in response to corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH). CRH is released in a cyclic fashion by the hypothalamus, resulting in diurnal peaks (6 a.m.-8 a.m.) and nadirs (11 p.m.) in plasma ACTH and cortisol levels. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2110 | Estradiol | 82670 | Measuring the circulating levels of estradiol is important for assessing the ovarian function and monitoring follicular development for assisted reproduction protocols. Estradiol plays an essential role throughout the human menstrual cycle. Elevated estradiol levels in females may also result from primary or secondary ovarian hyperfunction. Very high estradiol levels are found during the induction of ovulation for assisted reproduction therapy or in pregnancy. Decreased estradiol levels in females may result from either lack of ovarian synthesis (primary ovarian hypofunction and menopause) or a lesion in the hypothalamus-pituitary axis (secondary ovarian hypofunction). Elevated estradiol levels in males may be due to increased aromatization of androgens, resulting in gynecomastia. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2115 | Folate (Folic Acid), Serum | 82746 | Investigation of suspected folate deficiency. Approximately 20 percent of the folate absorbed daily is derived from dietary sources; the remainder is synthesized by intestinal microorganisms. Serum folate levels typically fall within a few days after dietary folate intake is reduced and may be low in the presence of normal tissue stores. RBC folate levels are less subject to short-term dietary changes. Significant folate deficiency is characteristically associated with macrocytosis and megaloblastic anemia. Lower than normal serum folate also has been reported in patients with neuropsychiatric disorders, in pregnant women whose fetuses have neural tube defects, and in women who have recently had spontaneous abortions. Folate deficiency is most commonly due to insufficient dietary intake and is most frequently encountered in pregnant women or in alcoholics. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2120 | FSH, Serum | 83001 | An adjunct in the evaluation of menstrual irregularities. Evaluating patients with suspected hypogonadism. Predicting ovulation, Evaluating infertility, and Diagnosing pituitary disorders. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone from the hypothalamus controls the secretion of the gonadotropins, follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH), from the anterior pituitary. The menstrual cycle is divided by a midcycle surge of both FSH and LH into a follicular phase and a luteal phase. FSH appears to control gametogenesis in both males and females. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2125 | hCG, �-Subunit, Quantitative, Serum | 84702 | Monitoring patients for retained products of conception. Aiding in the diagnosis of gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD), testicular tumors, ovarian germ cell tumors, teratomas, and, rarely, other human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)-secreting tumors. Serial measurement of hCG following treatment for: -Monitoring therapeutic response in GTD or in hCG-secreting tumors. -Detecting persistent or recurrent GTD or hCG-secreting tumors. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2126 | hCG, �-Subunit, Qualitative ,Serum | This test should be used only to determine pregnancy. | |||||||||||||||||
| 2130 | Luteinizing Hormone(LH), S | 83002 | An adjunct in the evaluation of menstrual irregularities. Evaluating patients with suspected hypogonadism. Predicting ovulation. Evaluating infertility. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2135 | CRP, High Sensitivity | 86141 | Assessment of risk of developing myocardial infarction in patients presenting with acute coronary syndromes C-reactive protein (CRP) is a biomarker of inflammation. Plasma CRP concentrations increase rapidly and dramatically (100-foldor more) in response to tissue injury or inflammation. High-sensitivity CRP (hs-CRP) is more precise than standard CRP when measuring baseline (ie, normal) concentrations and enables a measure of chronic inflammation. Atherosclerosis is an inflammatory disease and hs-CRP has been endorsed by multiple guidelines as a biomarker of atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease risk. (1-3) | ||||||||||||||||
| 2140 | Insulin | 83525 | Insulin is a hormone produced by the beta cells of the pancreas. It regulates the uptake and utilization of glucose and is also involved in protein synthesis and triglyceride storage. Type 1 diabetes (insulin-dependent diabetes) is caused by insulin deficiency due to destruction of insulin-producing pancreatic islet (beta) cells. Type 2 diabetes (noninsulin dependent diabetes) is characterized by resistance to the action of insulin (insulin resistance). Insulin levels may be increased in patients with pancreatic beta cell tumors (insulinoma). Use for diagnosing insulinoma, when used in conjunction with proinsulin and C-peptide measurements. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2141 | insulin 30min | 83525 | |||||||||||||||||
| 2142 | insulin 1Hr | 83525 | |||||||||||||||||
| 2143 | insulin 2Hr | 83525 | |||||||||||||||||
| 2145 | PTH, Intact | 83970 | Diagnosis and differential diagnosis of hypercalcemia Diagnosis of primary, secondary, and tertiary hyperparathyroidism Diagnosis of hypoparathyroidism Monitoring end-stage renal failure patients for possible renal osteodystrophy | ||||||||||||||||
| 2155 | CKMB Creatine Kinase | 82553 | Serial quantitation of serum creatine kinase MB (CKMB) levels, often performed at admission and 8-hours, 16-hours, and 24-hours after admission, has traditionally been used as an aid in the diagnosis of myocardial injury. May be useful if the initial troponin determination is abnormal or if a hospitalized patient has a suspected reinfarction. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2180 | Carbamazepine, Serum | 80156 | Carbamazepine is an anticonvulsant which is structurally related to the tricyclic antidepressants and is useful in treating patients with temporal lobe epilepsy. Carbamazepine levels are monitored to assure adequate therapeutic levels are achieved and to avoid toxicity. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2200 | Thyroid Peroxidase (Anti-TPO) Ab | 86376 | Aiding in the diagnosis of thyroid autoimmune disorders Differentiating thyroid autoimmune disorders from nonautoimmune goiter or hypothyroidism As a diagnostic tool in deciding whether to treat a patient who has subclinical hypothyroidism | ||||||||||||||||
| 2205 | Valproic Acid (Depakote) Total | 80164 | Monitoring total valproic acid in therapy Assessing complianceEvaluating potential toxicity | ||||||||||||||||
| 2301 | Allergen, Sweet Vernal Grass (G1) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Anthoxanthum odoratum Source material: Pollen Family: Poaceae (Gramineae) Sub Family: Pooideae Tribe: Aveneae Common Names: Sweet Vernal grass, Large Sweet Vernal grass, Sweet grass, Spring grass Pollen A grass species producing pollen, which often induces hay fever, asthma and conjunctivitis in sensitized individuals. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2303 | Allergen, Orchard Grass (Cocksfoot) (g3) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Dactylis glomerata Source material: Pollen Family: Poaceae (Gramineae) Sub Family: Pooideae Tribe: Poeae Common Names: Cocksfoot grass Cock's foot grass, Cock's-foot, Orchard Grass, Orchardgrass Recognized varieties include: D. g. var. ciliata Peterm, D. g. var. detonsa Fries A grass species producing pollen, which often induces hayfever, asthma and conjunctivitis in sensitized individuals. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2403 | Allergen, Giant Ragweed (w3) IgE | 86003 | Code: w3 Latin name: Ambrosia trifida Source material: Pollen Family: Asteraceae (Compositae) Common Names: Giant ragweed, Great ragweed, Tall ragweed | ||||||||||||||||
| 2406 | Allergen, Mugwort (w6) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Artemisia vulgaris Source material: Pollen Family: Asteraceae (Compositae) Common Names: Mugwort, Chrysanthemum Weed, Common Wormwood See also: Wormwood w5 (A. absinthium) | ||||||||||||||||
| 2411 | Russian Thistle (w11) IgE | 86003 | |||||||||||||||||
| 2413 | Allergen, Cocklebur (w13) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Xanthium commune Source material: Pollen Family: Asteraceae Common Names: Cocklebur, Rough Cocklebur, Common Cocklebur Allergen Exposure: Cocklebur is native to Europe, Asia, southern Canada, and most of the United States, Mexico and Central America. Cocklebur is now found worldwide. Another species that is less common but widespread across North America is called Spiny Cocklebur. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2417 | Allergen, Firebush (w17) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Kochia scoparia (Synonyms: Bassia scoparia, Chenopodium scoparia) Source material: Pollen Family: Amaranthaceae (Chenopodiaceae) Common Names: Firebush, Kochia, Common Kochia Allergen Exposure: Kochia is native to southern and eastern Russia, Europe and Asia. It is now naturalized across the northern half of the United States and spreading south-westwards. It is found in many other areas of the world. Kochia is a major source of pollen. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2515 | Allergen, White Ash (t15) IgE | Latin name: Fraxinus americana Source material: Pollen Family: Oleaceae There are 4 important genera in the Oleaceae Family: Olive (Olea), Ash (Fraxinus), Lilac (Syringa), and Privet (Ligustrum). | |||||||||||||||||
| 2519 | Acacia (t19) IgE | 86003 | |||||||||||||||||
| 2555 | Allergen, Sweet Potato (f54) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Ipomoea batatas Source material: Fresh sweet potato Family: Convolvulaceae Common Names: Sweet Potato, Sweetpotato, Yam, Batata | ||||||||||||||||
| 2561 | Allergen, Black Pepper (f280) IgE | 86003 | Spice Black pepper is a spice commonly used in foods. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2563 | Allergen, Apricot (f237) IgE | 86003 | A food, which may result in allergy symptoms in sensitized individuals. Apricot is a species of Prunus, classified with the plum in the subgenus Prunus. It most probably originated in northern and western China and Central Asia. It now thrives in most temperate climates, and ranks fifth in worldwide deciduous fruit production. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2564 | Allergen, Basil (f269) IgE | 86003 | A food, which may result in allergy symptoms in sensitized individuals. Basil, a member of the mint family, is one of the oldest herbs from the Orient. It originated in India and is now found in more than 100 varieties and grown almost worldwide. It is used, fresh or dried or as an extract, to add a distinct aroma and flavour to food. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2568 | Allergen, Blueberry (f288) IgE | 86003 | Source material: Frozen fruit Common Names: Blueberry, European blueberry, Lowbush blueberry, Highbush blueberry, Whinberry, Whortleberry, Bilberry | ||||||||||||||||
| 2570 | Allergen, White Mulberry (T70) IgE | 86003 | |||||||||||||||||
| 2603 | Allergen, Horse Dander (e3) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Equus caballus Source material: Dander Family: Equidae Common Names: Horse, Domestic Horse Direct or indirect contact with animal allergens frequently causes sensitization. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2604 | Allergen, Cow Dander (e4) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Bos taurus Source material: Dander Family: Bovidae Common Names: Cow, Cattle, Steer, Ox, Bull Direct or indirect contact with animal allergens frequently causes sensitization. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2606 | Allergen, Guinea Pig Epithelia (e6) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Cavia porcellus Source material: Epithelium and dander Family: Caviidae Common Names: Guinea pig, Cavy Direct or indirect contact with animal allergens frequently causes sensitization. Animal allergens are major components of house dust and laboratory dust. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2609 | Allergen, Cherry (f242) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Prunus avium Source material: Frozen berry Family: Rosaceae Common Names: Cherry, Sweet cherry, Wild cherry | ||||||||||||||||
| 2610 | Allergen, Chili Pepper (f279) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Capsicum frutescens Family: Solanaceae Common Names: Chili Pepper Two unrelated families have members called Pepper: Solanaceae, the Potato family, and Piperaceae, the Pepper family, including White and Black Pepper. The latter, which are condiments and spices, are made from unripe peppercorns from the Piper Nigrum plant and sold dried, crushed, or pickled in vinegar or brine. See Black Pepper/White Pepper f280. Confusion is possible between the Peppers C. frutescens and C. annuum, especially since C. annuum includes Red Peppers that are the source of hot-flavoured Paprika and other spices and condiments. Furthermore, the spice Capsicum can be derived from both species, from C. annuum principally, and from C. frutescens L. to a lesser extent. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2623 | Allergen, Sardine/Pilchard (f61) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Sardinops melanosticta Source material: Fish muscle Family: Clupeidae The name sardine or pilchard is given to herring-like fishes belonging to the genera Sardina, Sardinella and Sardinops. Canned sardines may, in fact, be herrings.Allergen ExposureThe name sardine or pilchard is given to herring-like fishes belonging to the genera Sardina, Sardinella and Sardinops. Canned sardines may, in fact, be herrings. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2626 | Allergen, Asparagus (f261) IgE | 86003 | Asparagus is a widely grown vegetable. Together with Garlic, the Onion and the Leek, it belongs to the Alliaceae (previously known as Liliaceae) or Lily family, which contains ferns and vegetables and flowers such as tulips. The genus Asparagus is made up of some 300 species. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2627 | Culture, Cytomegalovirus Conventional and Rapid | 87252, 87254 | Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is ubiquitous, infecting 60-80 percent of individuals by adulthood in the U.S. In certain populations, antibodies to CMV are detected in 100 percent of sera tested. Most infections are asymptomatic, and only about 1 percent of those infected actually experience clinical manifestations of CMV disease. CMV belongs to the herpes virus group including Herpes Simplex, Varicella-Zoster, and Epstein-Barr Virus. Characteristic of this group is the ability to establish latent infections with sporadic episodes of reactivation of disease or viral shedding. CMV has been identified as the etiologic agent in a variety of conditions including congenital abnormalities, mononucleosis-like syndromes, pneumonitis in infants, and interstitial pneumonias in immunocompromised populations such as renal transplant recipients, individuals with AIDS, and in patients with malignancies. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2630 | Allergen, Blackberry (f211) IgE | 86003 | Source material: fruit Common Names: Blackberry, Common blackberry, Allegheny blackberry, European blackberry, Bramble, Bramble-kite, Brambleberry, Brameberry | ||||||||||||||||
| 2631 | Allergen, Broccoli (f260) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Brassica oleracea var. italica Source material: florets Family: Brassicaceae Common Names: Broccoli, Spear Cauliflower, Winter Cauliflower, Purple Cauliflower, Calabrese, Romanesco | ||||||||||||||||
| 2632 | Allergen, Cabbage (f216) IgE | 36003 | Latin name: Brassica oleracea var. capitata Source material: Whole head of cabbage Family: Brassicaceae Common Names: Cabbage, Head cabbage, Heading cabbage | ||||||||||||||||
| 2635 | Allergen, Cauliflower (f291) IgE | 36003 | Latin name: Brassica oleracea var. botrytis Family: Brassicaceae Common Names: Cauliflower, Broccoflower, Calabrese, Romanesco | ||||||||||||||||
| 2637 | Allergen, Cinnamon (f220) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Cinnamomum spp. Family: Lauraceae Common Names: Cinnamon (but see immediately below) Commercial Cinnamon may be represented by a number of species, but the following distinction is the most important. True or Ceylon Cinnamon (Cinnamomum zeylanicum or C. Vera) must be differentiated from Cassia (Chinese Cinnamon), obtained from Cinnamomum cassia or C. aromaticum, which grows in China. Cinnamon is not to be confused with another Cassia, Cassia senna, a Fabaceae (legume) family member, which is used as a laxative. Spice: A spice, which may result in allergy symptoms in sensitized individuals. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2639 | Allergen, Cucumber (f244) IgE | 36003 | Latin name: Cucumis sativus Source material: Fresh fruit Family: Cucurbitaceae Common Names: Cucumber, Cuke, Gherkin, Cowcumber | ||||||||||||||||
| 2649 | Herpes Simplex Virus I/II/VZV PCR, Swab | 87255 | The HSV 1+2/VZV Assay is a multiplex in vitro diagnostic test for the detection and differentiation of Herpes simplex virus type 1(HSV-1), Herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2), and Varicella-zoster virus (VZV) nucleic acids isolated and purified from cutaneousor mucocutaneous swab specimens obtained from symptomatic patients.Using HDA technology the target sequences are amplified by HSV-1, HSV-2 and/or VZV specific primers and detected by HSV-1,HSV-2 and/or VZV specific fluorescence probes included in the Reaction Tube. | Herpes Simplex Virus I PCRHerpes Simplex Virus II PCRVZV PCR | |||||||||||||||
| 2650 | Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) 1 and 2, PCR (Swab) | 87529 | The HSV 1 and 2 Assay is a multiplex in-vitro diagnostic test for the detection and differentiation of Herpes Simplex Virus Type 1 and Herpes Simplex Virus Type 2 | Herpes Simplex Virus 1, PCR Herpes Simplex Virus 2, PCR | |||||||||||||||
| 2651 | Allergen, Chicken Feathers (e85) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Gallus domesticus Source material: Feather Family: Phasianidae Common Names: Chicken, Hen, Cock, Cockerel Direct or indirect contact with bird allergens may cause sensitization. Bird allergens may be major components of house dust. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2652 | Allergen, Hamster Epithelia (e84) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Cricetus cricetus, Mesocricetus auratus and Phodopus sungorus Source material: Epithelium Family: Cricetidae Common Names: Cricetidae Cricetus cricetus - Common hamster, Phodopus sungorus - Siberian hamster, Dwarf hamster, Mesocricetus auratus - Golden hamster Direct or indirect contact with animal allergens frequently causes sensitization. Animal allergens are major components of house dust. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2653 | Allergen, Swine Epithelia (e83) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Sus scrofa Family: Suidae Common Names: Swine, Pig, Hog, Boar Direct or indirect contact with animal allergens frequently causes sensitization. Animal allergens are major components of farm, home and animal laboratory dust. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2654 | Allergen, Rabbit Epithelia (e82) IgE | 86003 | Code: e82 Latin name: Oryctolagus cuniculus Family: Leporidae Common Names: Rabbit, European Rabbit, Common European Rabbit, Domestic Rabbit | ||||||||||||||||
| 2656 | Allergen, Goat Epithelia (e80) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Capra hircus Family: Bovidae Common Names: Goat Direct or indirect contact with animal allergens frequently causes sensitization. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2657 | Allergen, Mouse Epithelia (e71) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Mus spp. Source material: Epithelium Family: Muridae Common Names: Mouse, House mouse, Common house mouse | ||||||||||||||||
| 2658 | Mouse Urine Proteins (e72) IgE | 86003 | |||||||||||||||||
| 2659 | Allergen, Rat Epithelia (e73) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Rattus norvegicus Family: Muridae Common Names: Rat, Brown rat, House rat, Norway rat | ||||||||||||||||
| 2661 | Allergen, Goose Feathers (e70) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Anser anser Source material: Feathers and serum proteins Family: Anatidae Common Names: Goose, Toulouse Goose, Grey Goose, Greylag The genera Anser and Branta should both be considered. Anser includes many wild Geese with well-known domestic relatives. This group includes Anser anser (European) and species of Africa and Asia. Branta includes wild Geese like the Canada Goose (Branta Canadensis) and the Brants (most notably Branta bernicla). Direct or indirect contact with bird allergens may cause sensitization. Bird allergens may be major components of house dust. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2662 | Allergen, Parrot/Parakeet Feathers (e78) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Melopsittacus undulatus Source material: Feathers Family: Psittacidae Common Names: Budgerigar, Budgie, Parakeet Direct or indirect contact with bird allergens may cause sensitization. Bird allergens may be major components of house dust. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2663 | Allergen, Parrot/Parakeet Droppings (e77) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Melopsittacus undulatus Source material: Droppings Family: Psittacidae Common Names: Budgerigar, Budgie, Parakeet Direct or indirect contact with bird allergens frequently causes sensitization. Bird allergens may be major components in house dust. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2664 | Allergen, Duck Feathers (e86) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Anas platyrhynca Source material: Feathers Family: Anatidae Common Names: Duck; also see below Direct or indirect contact with bird allergens may cause sensitization. Bird allergens may be major components of house dust. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2675 | Allergen, Grape (f259) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Vitis vinifera Source material: Fresh fruit Family: Vitaceae Common Names: Grape Food A food, which may result in allergy symptoms in sensitized individuals. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2704 | Allergen, Mucor racemosus (m4) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Mucor racemosus Source material: Spores and mycelium Family: Mucoraceae Mold A mold, which may result in allergy symptoms in sensitized individuals. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2707 | Allergen, Herring (f205) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Clupea harengus Source material: Fish muscle Family: Clupeidae Small herrings are sometimes canned and sold as sardines. Allergen Exposure: Herring is eaten raw, cooked, pickled, fried or smoked. Canned sardines may sometimes be herrings. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2708 | Allergen, Lemon (f208) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Citrus limon Source material: Fresh fruit Family: Rutaceae Food A food, which may result in allergy symptoms in sensitized individuals. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2709 | Allergen, Lime (f306) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Citrus aurantifolia Source material: Fresh fruit Family: Rutaceae Common Names: Lime, Green lemon, Sour lemon Synonyms: C. acida, C. lima, C. medica, Limonia aurantifolia | ||||||||||||||||
| 2713 | Allergen, Mackerel (f206) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Scomber scombrus Source material: Fresh fish Family: Scombridae In a study of fish- and crustacea-allergic adults, the reactivity to mackerel was the second highest. Allergen Exposure: Mackerel is usually eaten cooked, marinated or smoked. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2714 | Allergen, Mandarin (Tangerine) (f302) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Citrus reticulata Family: Rutaceae Common Names: Mandarin, Mandarin orange, Tangerine, Clementine, Satsuma, Dancy Synonyms: C. deliciosa, C. nobilis Food A food, which may rarely result in allergy symptoms in sensitized individuals. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2718 | Allergen, Nutmeg (f282) IgE | 86003 | Nutmeg is the seed or ground spice of several species of the Myristica genus. Myristica fragrans (fragrant nutmeg or true nutmeg) is a dark-leaved evergreen tree cultivated for two spices derived from its fruit: nutmeg and mace. It is also a commercial source of an essential oil and nutmeg butter. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2720 | Allergen, Papaya (f293) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Carica papaya Source material: Fruit pulp Family: Caricaceae Common Names: Papaya, Pawpaw, Paw paw, Tree melon | ||||||||||||||||
| 2748 | Allergen,Turkey Meat (f284) IgE | 86003 | |||||||||||||||||
| 2806 | Allergen, Barley (f6) IgE | 86003 | About half of the total US production is used for malting, but because of Barley's mild flavour and soft texture, the grain is often found in soups and baby foods. Malt is used in making several kinds of alcoholic beverages, most prominently beer and whiskey. Other products are flour, flakes and bran. Scotch and Hulled barley are types with only the outer husk removed. Pearl barley is rounded and polished after the husk is removed. Barley flour is ground from Pearl barley and must be combined with a Gluten-containing flour for use in yeast breads. When combined with water and lemon, Pearl barley is used to make Barley water, an old-fashioned restorative for invalids. Barley is a good source of B vitamins and some minerals. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2809 | Allergen, Rice (f9) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Oryza sativa Source material: Unpolished rice Family: Graminae (Poaceae) Common Names: Rice, Jasmine rice, Wild rice, Basmati rice, popped Rice, Rice semolina | ||||||||||||||||
| 2811 | Allergen, Buckwheat (f11) IgE | Latin name: Fagopyrum esculentum Source material: Whole seed Family: Polygonaceae Common Names: Buckwheat, Beechwheat, Fagopyrum, French wheat, Garden buckwheat | |||||||||||||||||
| 2812 | Allergen, Pea (f12) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Pisum sativum Source material: Dried peas Family: Fabaceae (Leguminosae) Common Names: Pea, Common pea, Garden pea, Greenpea, Green pea, Dry pea, Snow pea, Sugar snap pea Synonym: P. humile | ||||||||||||||||
| 2831 | Allergen, Carrot (f31) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Daucus carota Source material: Fresh frozen juice Family: Apiaceae Common Names: Carrot | ||||||||||||||||
| 2833 | Allergen, Orange (f33) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Citrus sinensis Source material: Fresh frozen juice Family: Rutaceae Common Names: Orange, Sweet orange Synonums: C. cinensis, C. macracantha, Citrus sinensis - sweet variety, Citrus aurantium - sour/bitter variety | ||||||||||||||||
| 2835 | Allergen, Potato (f35) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Solanum tuberosum Source material: Fresh raw potato Family: Solanaceae Common Names: Potato, Irish Potato, Spud | ||||||||||||||||
| 2840 | Allergen, Tuna (F40) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Thunnus albacares Source material: Fish muscle Family: Scombridae Anaphylaxis after ingestion of tuna has been reported Allergen Exposure: Meat from tuna. Tuna is sold fresh, canned or frozen. Japanese sashimi/sushi includes raw tuna. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2841 | Allergen, Salmon (f41) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Salmo salar Source material: Fish muscle Family: Salmonidae Confusion surrounds the common names of fish in this group. The genus Salmo salar is from the northern Atlantic, the others from the Pacific.Allergen ExposureMeat from salmon. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2847 | Allergen, Garlic (f47) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Allium sativum Source material: Garlic powder Family: Alliaceae (Liliaceae) Common Names: Garlic, Cultivated garlic, Poor Man's treacle | ||||||||||||||||
| 2848 | Allergen, Onion (f48) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Allium cepa Source material: Freeze-dried onion Family: Alliaceae (Liliaceae) Common Names: Onion, Garden Onion, Shallot | ||||||||||||||||
| 2849 | Allergen, Apple (f49) IgE | 86003 | Distinguish between pollen related apple allergy and fruit allergy due to LTP sensitization. Improve the risk assessment using allergen components. Improve management of apple allergic patients. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2851 | Allergen, Alpha-Lactalbumin (f76) IgE | 86003 | Milk contains more than 40 proteins, and all of them may act as human species antigens. Milk of ruminant species other than Cow (e.g., buffalo, Sheep, Goat, human, and many other species) is constituted from the same or very homologous proteins, which share the same structural, functional, and biological properties. However, human milk does not contain b-lactoglobulin (beta-lactoglobulin)(BLG) (2). Human and Bovine milk differ substantially in the ratio of Whey to Casein protein (approximately 60: 40 in human milk and approximately 20: 80 in Bovine milk) and in the proportions of specific proteins (3). Milk composition changes during processing. Cow's milk contains approximately 30 to 35 g/L (3-3.5 percent) of Cow's milk proteins (CMPs), which can be divided into 2 main classes: Caseins (80 percent) and Whey proteins (20 percent) (4). Caseins are precipitated out by chymosin (rennin) or the acidification of the Milk to pH 4.6, forming the coagulum (curd). The Whey or Lactoserum remains soluble in the Milk serum. Lactoserum constitutes approximately 20 percent of the CMPs, and coagulum approximately 80 percent of the CMPs. Caseins and Whey proteins show very different physico-chemical properties. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2859 | Allergen, Cheese Mold Type (f82) IgE | 86003 | Source material: A mixture of white, soft cheeses (Camembert, Brie, Gorgonzola, Roquefort) In a recent review of atopic food allergy, cheese was the third most important allergen involved in 12.9 percent of 402 predominantly adults with confirmed food allergy. Allergen Exposure: Soft, white cheeses of mold type. Clinical Experience: IgE-mediated reactions In a recent review of atopic food allergy cheese was the third most important allergen involved in 12.9 percent of 402 predominantly adults with confirmed food allergy. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2860 | Allergen, Celery (f85) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Apium graveolens Source material: Freeze-dried stem and root Family: Apiaceae Common Names: Celery, Stick celery, Celeriac, Celery root, Root celery, Celery tuber, Knob celery | ||||||||||||||||
| 2861 | Allergen, Parsley (f86) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Petroselinum crispum Source material: Fresh leaves Family: Apiaceae (Umbelliferae) Food A food, which may result in allergy symptoms in sensitized individuals. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2862 | Allergen, Lettuce (f215) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Lactuca sativa Source material: Fresh lettuce Family: Asteraceae (Compositae) Common Names: Lettuce, Garden lettuce Main types: L. scariola - Prickly Lettuce, L. sativa var. capitata - Head Lettuce, L. sativa var. asparagina - Stem Lettuce, L. sativa var. crispa - Leaf Lettuce, L. sativa var. longifolia - Romaine | ||||||||||||||||
| 2863 | Allergen, Malt (f90) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Hordeum vulgare Family: Poaceae (Gramineae) Common Names: Malt, Barley Malt Food A food, which may result in allergy symptoms in sensitized individuals. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2875 | Allergen, Cocoa (f93) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Theobroma cacao Family: Sterculiaceae Common Names: Cacao powder Food A food, which may result in allergy symptoms in sensitized individuals. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2884 | Allergen, Kiwi Fruit (f84) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Actinidia deliciosa Source material: Fresh fruit Family: Actinidiaceae (Dilleniaceae) Common Names: Kiwi, Chinese gooseberry, Kiwifruit, Monkey peach, Sheep peach Synonyms: A. latifolia var. deliciosa, A. chinensis deliciosa There are 2 common species of Kiwi commercially available: A. chinensis - Gold kiwi, A. deliciosa - Green kiwi (Chinese gooseberry) | ||||||||||||||||
| 2887 | Allergen, Melons (f87) IgE | 86003 | Code: f87 Latin name: Cucumis melo spp. Source material: Fruit Family: Cucurbitaceae Common Names: Melon, Common melon, Muskmelon, Armenian cucumber | ||||||||||||||||
| 2888 | Allergen, Lamb (f88) IgE | 86003 | Code: f88 Latin name: Ovis spp. Source material: Raw meat Mutton is regarded as a weak allergen and preparations of lamb meat have been suggested as an alternative to hydrolyzed cow's milk formulas. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2889 | Allergen, Mustard (f89) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Brassica/Sinapis spp. Source material: Black and white seeds Family: Brassicaceae Common Names: Mustard (but see immediately below) Mustards were originally identified as members of a small but widespread genus of European and Asiatic herbs named Sinapis, but they are now generally included in the Cabbage genus, Brassica. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2915 | Allergen, Coffee (f221) IgE | 86003 | Code:*** Liberian coffee | ||||||||||||||||
| 2916 | Allergen, Curry (f281) IgE | 86003 | Source material: The raw material used for Allergen Immuno CAP f281, Curry, consists of blended spices (Coriander, Turmeric, Fenugreek, Cayenne, Fennel, Cumin and Black pepper), as manufactured by deliverer Santa Maria, Sweden. Common Names: Curry, Curry powder, Curry paste Spice A spice mixture, which may result in allergy symptoms in sensitized individuals. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2918 | Allergen, Dill (rf277) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Anethum graveolens Family: Apiaceae Common Names: Dill, False Anise, Bastard Fennel, Russian Parsley, Swedish Parsley Synonym: Peucedanum graveolensSpiceA spice, which may result in allergy symptoms in sensitized individuals. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2923 | Allergen, Grapefruit (f209) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Citrus paradisi Source material: Fresh fruit Family: Rutaceae Common Names: Grapefruit, Shaddock Food A food, which may result in allergy symptoms in sensitized individuals. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2958 | Aluminum, Serum | 82108 | Individuals undergoing hemodialysis are at risk for aluminum toxicity. Prolonged accumulation may cause anemia, encephalopathy, and vitamin D-resistant steomalacia. Also, workers exposed to high levels or to long-term low levels of aluminum dust are at increased risk of toxicity. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2998 | Allergen, Halibut (f303) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Hippoglossus hippoglossus Source material: Fish muscle Family: Pleuronectidae Anaphylaxis after eating halibut has been reported. Allergen Exposure: Cooked and fried in various dishes. | ||||||||||||||||
| 2999 | Immunoglobulin E, Qn, Serum | 82785 | Evaluation of patients with suspected diseases associated with elevations in total immunoglobulin E (IgE), including allergic disease, primary immunodeficiencies, infections, malignancies, or other inflammatory diseases. Diagnostic evaluation of patients with suspected allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis. Identification of candidates for omalizumab (anti-IgE) therapy. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3002 | Allergen, Dog Dander, (e5) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Canis familiaris Source material: Dander Family: Canidae Common Names: Dog, Domestic Dog, Hound Direct or indirect contact with animal allergens frequently causes sensitization. Animal allergens are major components of house dust. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3004 | Allergen, Fish, Cod, (f3) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Gadus morhua Source material: Fish muscle Family: Gadidae; Atlantic Cod - Gadus morhua, Baltic Cod - Gadus callarias Allergen Exposure: The Atlantic cod, Gadus morhua, is a well-known food fish belonging to the family Gadidae. It grows to two metres in length, with sexual maturity being reached between ages 2 and 4. Its colouring is brown to green on the dorsal side, shading to silver. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3006 | Allergen, Corn, (f8) IgE | 86003 | Code: f8 Latin name: Zea mays Source material: Untreated planting seeds Family: Poaceae (Gramineae) Common Names: Maize, Corn, Sweet Corn, Indian Corn, Field Corn Cultivars within the genus may be divided into 6 general types: Popcorn (everta), Flint corn (indurata), Dent corn (indenta), Flour corn (amylacea), Sweet corn (saccharata) and Pod corn (tunicata). There are, however, only 2 basic types: Sweet corn is distinguished from Field corn by the high sugar content of the kernels. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3010 | Allergen, Cow Milk, (f2) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Bos spp. Source material: Skimmed cow's milk | ||||||||||||||||
| 3012 | Allergen, Peanut, (f13) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Arachis hypogaea Source material: Shelled nuts Family: Fabaceae (Leguminosae) Common Names: Peanut, Groundnut, Monkeynut | ||||||||||||||||
| 3014 | Allergen, Pecan, (f201) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Carya illinoensis/Carya illinoinensis Source material: Shelled & heated nuts Family: Juglandaceae Common Names: Pecan nut, Hickory nut | ||||||||||||||||
| 3016 | Allergen, Shrimp, f24 | 86003 | Latin name: Pandalus borealis, Penaeus monodon, Metapenaeopsis barbata, Metapenaus joyneri Source material: Boiled, frozen Atlantic shrimp and raw, frozen prawns from the Indo-West-Pacific Family: Pandalidae (Pandalus borealis) and Penaeidae (Penaeus monodon, Metapenaeopsis barbata, Metapenaus joyneri) Shrimp is considered to be a highly allergenic food, causing severe reactions, such as anaphylaxis. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3018 | Allergen, Soybean, (f14) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Glycine max (Soja hispida) Source material: Dried beans Family: Fabaceae (Leguminosae) Common Names: Soybean, Soya Bean, Soy, Soya Allergen Exposure: Geographical distribution: Soybean is the world's most important legume. Proteins of Soybeans are widely used in animal and human nutrition. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3020 | Allergen, Walnut, (f256) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Juglans spp. Source material: Shelled nut Family: Juglandaceae The Juglandaceae family contains 2 important genera: Hickory/Pecan (Carya) and Walnut (Juglans) | ||||||||||||||||
| 3022 | Allergen, Pecan Tree (t22) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Carya tomentosa (syn. C. alba) Source material: Pollen Family: Juglandaceae Common Names: White Hickory, Mockernut hickory, Mockernut, Whiteheart hickory, Hognut, and Bullnut Synonym: C. alba | ||||||||||||||||
| 3026 | Allergen, Lambs Quarters (Goose Foot) (w10) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Chenopodium album Source material: Pollen Family: Amaranthaceae (Chenopodiaceae) Common Names: Goosefoot, Lamb's-quarters, Common lamb's quarters, Lambsquarter, White goosefoot | ||||||||||||||||
| 3028 | Allergen, Bakers Yeast, (f45) IgE | 86003 | A food, which may result in allergy symptoms in sensitized individuals. Fungi are eukaryotic unicellular or multicellular organisms with absorptive nutrition. Traditionally, they have been classified as members of the plant kingdom. More recently, a separate kingdom -Fungi- was established for them, although species historically considered fungi are currently distributed over several kingdoms. (1) Yeasts such as Saccharomyces cerevisiae are single-celled fungi that that multiply by budding, or in some cases by division (fission), although some yeasts such as Candida albicans may grow as simple irregular filaments (mycelia). | ||||||||||||||||
| 3030 | Allergen, Beef, (f27) IgE | 86003 | Several allergens present in cow dander and hair are also found in beef and milk. Allergen Exposure: Meat from bovines. Unexpected exposure: Undeclared ingredient in processed meat, like sausages, patês, etc. Bacterial vaccines containing bovine serum albumin. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3032 | Allergen, Pork, (f26) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Sus spp. Source material: Raw meat In a study of asthmatic patients, 20 percent (children) and 8.6 percent (adults) were found to have IgE-mediated allergy to pork. Allergen Exposure: Meat from swine. 30 percent of the meat is sold fresh, the rest is smoked, frozen, dried or pickled. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3034 | Allergen, Coconut, (f36) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Cocos nucifera Source material: Fresh coconut meat Family: Arecaceae Common Names: Coconut, Common Coconut There have in the past been 60 other species classified under the genus Cocos, but the Coconut palm is actually monotypic, meaning that within the genus Cocos only one species, nucifera, is now recognised, though within this species are numerous varieties. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3036 | Allergen, Wheat, (f4) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Triticum aestivum Source material: Untreated planting seeds Family: Poaceae (Gramineae) Common Names: Wheat, Common wheat, Bread wheat Synonyms: Triticum hybernum L., Triticum macha Dekap. & Menab., Triticum sativum Lam., Triticum sphaerococcum Percival, Triticum vulgare Vill | ||||||||||||||||
| 3040 | Allergen, Johnson Grass, (g10) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Sorghum halepense Source material: Pollen Family: Poaceae (Gramineae) Sub Family: Panicoideae Tribe: Andropogoneae Common Names: Johnson grass, Johnsongrass, Sorghum grass | ||||||||||||||||
| 3042 | Allergen, Meadow Grass,Kentucky blue, (g8) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Poa pratensis Source material: Pollen Family: Poaceae (Gramineae) Sub Family: Pooideae Tribe: Poeae Common Names: Meadow grass, Smooth Meadow-grass, Kentucky Blue grass, Kentucky Bluegrass, June Grass, Spear Grass Poa pratensis naturally hybridises with several other species within the genus, including P. secunda, P. arctica, P. alpina, P. nervosa, P. reflexa, and P. palustris. Most of the 200 species of the genus Poa are distributed in the cold and temperate regions of the world. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3045 | Allergen, Oregano (f283) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Origanum vulgare Family: Lamiaceae Common Names: Oregano, Oreganum, Wild Marjoram, Greek Oregano There is a great deal of confusion between Oregano and Marjoram (f274), partly because of their similar appearance, including the square stems, opposing pairs of leaves and whorled flower spikes typical of the Lamiaceae or Mint family. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3047 | Allergen, Paprika (f218) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Capsicum annuum Source material: Dried fruit (powder) Family: Solanaceae Common Names: Sweet Pepper, Paprika, Bell Pepper, Green Pepper, Hungarian Pepper, Red Pepper, Pimento, Pimiento | ||||||||||||||||
| 3048 | Allergen, Bahia grass, (g17) IgE | 86003 | Common names: Bahia Grass, Bahiagrass, Paraguay Paspalum A grass species producing pollen, which often induces hay fever, asthma and conjunctivitis in sensitized individual. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3050 | Allergen, Bermuda grass, (g2) IgE | 86003 | Source material: Pollen Common Names: Bermuda grass, Bermuda-grass, Bermudagrass, Scutch grass, Wire grass, Star grass, Bahama grass, Devil grass. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3052 | Penicillium notatum (m1) IgE | 86003 | A mold, which may result in allergy symptoms in sensitized individuals.Penicillium is the blue-green mold found on stale bread, fruits and nuts, and used for production of green and blue mold cheese. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3054 | Allergen, Elm, (t8) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Ulmus americana Source material: Pollen Family: Ulmaceae Common Names: Elm, white elm, American elm | ||||||||||||||||
| 3057 | Allergen, Cat Dander, (e1) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Felis domesticus Source material: Dander Family: Felidae Common Names: Cat, Domestic cat Allergen Exposure: Sensitization to cat is strongly associated with asthma, especially in environments free of mite and cockroach (1). The presence of domestic pets increases the prevalence of respiratory symptoms in asthmatic children (2), and children sensitized to cat allergen are more likely to develop a more severe asthma than children with negative tests to cat. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3058 | Lead, Blood (OSHA) | 83655 | Blood lead is useful in detecting industrial, dietary and accidental exposure to lead and to monitor detoxification therapy. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3060 | AA- Allergy, Food Panel | 82785 , 86003 x 24 | Total IgE, Fish, Cod, f3 Corn, f8 Egg Yolk, f75 Egg White, f1 Peanut, f13 Milk, f2 Pecan, f201 Shrimp, f24 Soybean, f14 Walnut, f256 Bakers Yeast, f45 Beef, f27 Pork, f26 Coconut, f36 Wheat, f4 Oat, f7 Gluten, f79 Green Bean, f315 Sugar Cane, F21 Rye, f5 Banana, f92 Sesame, f10 Strawberry, f44 | ||||||||||||||||
| 3063 | Allergen, Trout (f204) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Oncorhynchus mykiss Source material: Fish muscle Family: Salmonidae All Pacific salmon belong to the genus Oncorhynchus. Allergen Exposure: Eaten cooked, raw, smoked or marinated. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3065 | AA- Allergy, Nuts Panel | 82785 , 86003 X 14 | Total IgE, Peanut, f13 Pecan, f201 Walnut, f256 Hazelnut, f17 Coconut, f36 Almond, f20 Cashew, f202Brazil Nut, f18 Chestnut,f299 Pistachio, f203 Pine nut, f253 Macadamia Nut, f345 Coconut, f36 | ||||||||||||||||
| 3066 | C-Peptide, Serum | 84681 | C-Peptide is useful in the evaluation of pancreatic beta cell function (e.g., helping distinguish type 1 from type 2 diabetesmellitus, or monitoring patients who have received islet cell or pancreatic transplants) and for determining the source of insulinin patients with hyperinsulinemic hypoglycemia (e.g., distinguishing insulin-secreting tumors from exogenous insulinadministration). It is also sometimes measured as an additional means (more resistant to hemolysis than is insulin itself) forevaluating glucose tolerance tests. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3069 | Allergen, Tomato (f25) IgG | 86003 | Latin name: Lycopersicon esculatum Source material: Whole freeze-dried tomato Family: Solanaceae Common Names: Tomato, Garden Tomato, Love Apple | ||||||||||||||||
| 3071 | Allergen, Spinach (f214) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Spinachia oleracea Source material: Freeze-dried spinach Family: Chenopodiaceae Common Names: Spinach, Savoy spinach | ||||||||||||||||
| 3072 | Allergen, Timothy Grass (g6) IgE | Latin name: Phleum pratense Source material: Pollen Common Names: Timothy, Herd's Grass, Cat's Tail Synonyms: P. nodosum, P. parnassicum The two commonly recognised varieties are P. Pratense var. pratense, P. Pratense var. nodosum A grass species producing pollen, which often induces hayfever, asthma and conjunctivitis in sensitized individuals. | |||||||||||||||||
| 3073 | Allergen, A. fumigatus, (m3) IgE | 86003 | The species A. fumigatus was well-described and illustrated in the 1850s by Fresenius, working with lung material from birds dying of aspergillosis. It is a thermotolerant fungus with worldwide distribution. Due to its wide temperature range for good growth it is not limited to habitats with permanently high temperatures, even though these are obviously very frequently reported. This microorganism is one of the most prevalent airborne fungal pathogens; (1) although in comparison with other aeroallergens the concentration of spores in the air may be low, though with high localised counts. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3075 | Allergen, Sheep Sorrel (w18) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Rumex acetosella Source material: Pollen Family: Polygonaceae Common Names: Sheep Sorrel, Field Sorrel, Red Sorrel, Common Sheep Sorrel | ||||||||||||||||
| 3076 | Allergen, Thyme (f273) IgE | Latin name: Thymus vulgaris Family: Lamiaceae (Labiatae) Common Names: Thyme, Garden thyme, Common thyme Herb A herb, which may result in allergy symptoms in sensitized individuals. Allergen Exposure: Thymus is a huge genus, containing 300 to 400 species, most of which are aromatic shrubs or perennials. All are native to Asia or Europe, most probably to Southern Europe. Thyme is now cultivated all over the world and has become naturalized in some areas, including the northeastern US. | |||||||||||||||||
| 3077 | Allergen, Latex k82 -IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Hevea brasiliensis Source material: Natural rubber from Hevea brasiliensis, without ammonia treatment The prevalence of latex allergy among health care personnel ranges from 2-25 percent. Allergen Exposure: Numerous items, such as latex gloves, catheters, condoms, balloons, sports equipment etc. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3078 | Allergen, Peach (f95) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Prunus persica Source material: Peel from fresh fruit Family: Rosaceae Food A food, which may result in allergy symptoms in sensitized individuals. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3079 | Allergen, Pineapple (f210) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Ananas comosus Source material: Whole fresh fruit Family: Bromeliaceae Common Names: Pineapple, Ananas, Piña | ||||||||||||||||
| 3080 | Allergen, Hazelnut, f17 | 86003 | Latin name: Corylus avellana Source material: Shelled nuts Family: Betulaceae (Corylaceae) Common Names: Hazel nut, Hazelnut, Filbert, Cobnut, Cob The terms Filbert and Hazel nut are often used interchangeably for nuts from all plants in the genus Corylus, such as C. silvestris, C. maxima and C. colurna. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3081 | Allergen, Plum (f255) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Prunus domestica Source material: Fresh fruit Family: Rosaceae Common Names: Plum, Gage, Prune Food A food, which may rarely result in allergy symptoms in sensitized individuals. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3082 | Allergen, Red Snapper (f381) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Lutjanus campechanus Source material: Whole fish Family: Lutjanidae | ||||||||||||||||
| 3083 | Allergen, Pinto Bean (f300) IgE | 86003 | |||||||||||||||||
| 3084 | Allergen, Brazil Nut, (f18) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Bertholletia excelsa Source material: Shelled nuts Family: Lecythidaceae Common Names: Brazil nut, Para-nut, Cream nut | ||||||||||||||||
| 3085 | Allergen, Lentils (f235) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Lens esculenta Source material: Dried seeds Family: Fabaceae (Leguminosae) Common Names: Lens culinaris, Cicer lens, Lentilla lens | ||||||||||||||||
| 3086 | Allergen, Almond, (f20) IgE | 86003 | The Almond is the fruit of a vigorous, deep-rooted deciduous small tree belonging to the Rose family, which grows best in areas with dry, warm summers. The plant is believed to be a native of northern Africa and the Middle East. It occurs wild in Sicily and Greece and is extensively cultivated in northern Africa, southern Europe, Australia and the warmer parts of the United States, particularly California.The fruit is a drupe or kernel stone fruit, resembling the Peach in its general structural characteristics. It is, however, much smaller, measuring about 4 cm in length. As in the Peach, the outer portion of the fruit coat (sarcocarp) is fleshy, while the inner portion (endocarp or putamen) is hard and encloses the kernel or seed, to which the term Almond is commonly applied. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3088 | Allergen, C. albicans, (m5) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Candida albicans Source material: Disrupted cells Yeast Candida-specific IgE antibodies have been demonstrated in asthma and rhinitis (1). C. albicans is common in soil, organic debris and in humans where it occurs as a saprophyte in the nasopharynx and feces. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3094 | Allergen, Oak, (t7) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Quercus alba Source material: Pollen Family: Fagaceae Common Names: Oak, White oak, Forked-leaf white oak, Fork-leaf oak | ||||||||||||||||
| 3100 | Allergen, Perennial Rye Grass (g5) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Lolium perenne Source material: Pollen Family: Poaceae (Gramineae) Sub Family: Pooideae Tribe: Poeae Common Names: Rye grass, Rye-grass, Perennial Rye Grass, Perennial Rye-grass, Perennial Ryegrass, Ray-grass, Annual Ryegrass | ||||||||||||||||
| 3102 | Mercury, RBCs | 83825 | Mercury, RBCs - Exposure monitoring/investigation; not for clinical diagnostic purposes. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3103 | Allergen, Egg White, IgE | LatinSourceFamily:Common names: Peanut, Groundnut, Monkeynut | |||||||||||||||||
| 3147 | Eosinophil Count, Sputum | 85999 | Screening test to aid in diagnosis of asthma, bronchitis and some types of pneumonia. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3152 | Allergen, Goldenrod (w12) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Solidago virgaurea Source material: Pollen Family: Asteraceae (Compositae) Common Names: Goldenrod, European Goldenrod, Woundwort Note: Not to be confused with Rayless Goldenrod (Haplopappus heterophyllus). | ||||||||||||||||
| 3154 | Allergen, Rough Marsh Elder (w16) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Iva ciliata (Synonym: I. annua) Source material: Pollen Family: Asteraceae Common Names: Rough Marshelder, Rough Marsh Elder, Annual Marshelder, Annual Marsh-Elder, Sumpweed | ||||||||||||||||
| 3160 | Chloride, 24 hr Urine | 82436, 82570 | Urine chloride excretion approximates the dietary intake. The chloride content of most foods parallels that of sodium. An increase in urine chloride may result from water deficient dehydration, diabetic acidosis, Addison's Disease, and salt-losing renal disease. Decreased urine levels are seen in congestive heart failure, severe diaphoresis and in hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis due to prolonged vomiting. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3168 | BILE ACID SYNTHESIS, SERUM | 82542 | |||||||||||||||||
| 3186 | Potassium, 24 hr Urine | Potassium (K+) is the major intracellular cation. Functions of potassium include regulation of neuromuscular excitability, heart contractility, intracellular fluid volume, and hydrogen ion concentration. The physiologic function of K+ requires that the body maintain a low extracellular fluid (ECF) concentration of the cation; the intracellular concentration is 20 times greater than the extracellular K+ concentration. Only 2 percent of total body K+ circulates in the plasma. The kidneys provide the most important regulation of K+. The proximal tubules reabsorb almost all the filtered K+. Under the influence of aldosterone, the remaining K+ can then be secreted into the urine in exchange for sodium in both the collecting ducts and the distal tubules. Thus, the distal nephron is the principal determinant of urinary K+ excretion. Decreased excretion of K+ in acute renal disease and end-stage renal failure are common causes of prolonged hyperkalemia. Renal losses of K+ may occur during the diuretic (recovery) phase of acute tubular necrosis, during administration of non-potassium sparing | Urinary excretion of potassium is increased in primary aldosteronism. It is often increased in dehydration and in salicylate toxicity. Decreased levels are seen in malabsorption. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3189 | Phenytoin, Free | 80186 | Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant drug useful in the treatment of epilepsy. It is also used as an antiarrhythmic, and in the treatment of epidermolysis bullosa and trigeminal neuralgia. Phenytoin is 80 to 95 bound to plasma proteins, only the free fraction is biologically active. Any disease or condition (uremia, hyperbilirubinemia, nephrotic syndrome, elderly individual) causing a decrease in plasma protein binding of phenytoin can be associated with an increase in free phenytoin concentration, leading to phenytoin toxicity. Numerous agents (valproic acid, salicylates, thiazides, and endogenous compounds in patients with renal failure) can also displace phenytoin from its binding site on albumin. When these compounds are present, the free fraction of phenytoin increases, yielding a toxic situation. Patients can present with phenytoin toxicity symptoms and yet have normal total phenytoin blood levels. In these cases, a phenytoin, free level is recommended. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3204 | Allergen, Cottonwood (t14) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Populus deltoides Source material: Pollen Family: Salicaceae Common Names: Cottonwood, Poplar tree The botanical family willow (Salicaceae) consists of Populus and Salix, the latter being true willows. Populus deltoides is the common designation for species of trees in this genus, but in fact Populus can be divided into 3 distinct groups: cottonwoods, aspens and poplars. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3206 | Allergen, Sycamore (t11) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Platanus acerifolia Source material: Pollen Family: Platanaceae Common Names: Maple leaf sycamore, London plane tree, American sycamore Synonyms: P. hispanica, P. hybrida This is a somewhat variable species. It is often considered to be a hybrid of P. orientalis and P. occidentalis. Not to be confused with the Maple tree (Acer spp.), i.e. Box-elder (A. negundo). | ||||||||||||||||
| 3208 | Allergen, Willow (t12) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Salix caprea Source material: Pollen Family: Salicaceae Common Names: Willow, Goat willow, Great sallow, Pussy willow The Family: Salicaceae contains the genera Populus (Aspens, Cottonwoods, and Poplars) and Salix (Willow) | ||||||||||||||||
| 3210 | Allergen, Beech (t5) IgE | 86003 | Source material: Pollen Common Names: American beech, Carolina beech, gray beech, red beech, ridge beech, white beech | ||||||||||||||||
| 3244 | Allergen, Vanilla (f234) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Vanilla planifolia Family: Orchidaceae Common Names: Vanilla Synomyns: Vanilla fragrans Of the over 150 varieties of Vanilla orchids, only 2 species are used commercially for fragrances and flavorants: Bourbon or Mexican (Vanilla planifolia or Vanilla fragrans), from Mexico, Madagascar, Indonesia, and many other regions; with standard Vanilla scents and flavours; Tahitian (Vanilla tahitensis), only from Tahiti, which smells of prunes, liquorice, Cherry or wine. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3248 | Allergen, Whey (f236) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Bos spp. Source material: Whey powder Whey is the by-product of cheese-making. Milk proteins contain about 20 percent whey components. Allergen Exposure: Processed cheese. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3250 | Allergen, Helminthosporium halodes (m8) IgE | 86003 | Code: m8 Latin name: Setomelanomma rostrata/Helminthosporium halodes Source material: Spores and mycelium Helminthosporium almost always occurs seasonally and the spores are released on dry, hot days. Allergen Exposure: Species of Helminthosporium are best known as parasites of cereals and grasses. It is frequently isolated from grains, grasses, sugar cane, soil and textiles. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3256 | Allergen, Stemphylium botryosum (m10) IgE | Latin name: Stemphylium herbarum/S.botryosum Source material: Spores and mycelium Family: Pleosporaceae A mold, which may result in allergy symptoms in sensitized species of mold, very common in temperate and subtropical regions and found on a wide range of host plants. Soil isolates have been reported from forests, grasslands, decaying vegetation, wheat plantings, beet and citrus cultivation and coffee plantations. It has also been isolated from polluted fresh water, leaf litter of trees, and bark and leaves of citrus. As a typical seedborne fungus, it is seen on tomato (black mold rot), wheat and barley. | |||||||||||||||||
| 3258 | Methadone (Dolophine), Serum | 80358 | Therapeutic monitoring of methadone (Dolphine/Methadose) treatment.) | ||||||||||||||||
| 3300 | Allergen, Honey bee,i1 | 86003 | Latin name: Apis mellifera Source material: Venom Family: Apidae Order: Hymenoptera Honeybee is the only stinging Hymenoptera that nearly always leaves its fluked stinger in the skin of the victim. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3302 | Allergen, Peper wasp, (i4) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Polistes spp. Source material: Venom Family: Vespidae Paper wasp includes 5 North American species. Venom An insect, which may cause allergy symptoms in sensitized individuals. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3304 | Allergen, White-faced hornet,(i2) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Dolichovespula maculata Source material: Venom Family: Vespidae Order: Hymenoptera Some sting victims have been reported as suffering 2000 stings and surviving while others receive a single fatal sting. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3306 | Allergen, Yellow hornet,(i5) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Dolichovespula arenaria Source material: Venom Family: Vespidae Order: Hymenoptera Yellow hornets are not particularly attracted by food and are not often in contact with man. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3308 | Allergen, Common wasp (Yellow jacket),(i3) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Vespula spp. Source material: Venom Family: Vespidae Order: Hymenoptera Among the Vespula species, Vespula vulgaris is the group of yellow jackets that is responsible for causing the greatest proportion of stings. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3314 | Valproic Acid, Free and Total | 80165 | Valproic acid is used as an anticonvulsant to treat certain types of seizures, to prevent migraine headaches, and to treat various psychiatric illnesses such as bipolar disorder and aggression. Drugs that compete from protein-binding sites with valproic acid, can increase the concentration of valproic acid. Measurement of the free concentration is useful if toxicity is suspected | ||||||||||||||||
| 3328 | Allergen, Sweet Gum (t211) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Liquidambar styraciflua Family: Altingiaceae Common Names: Sweet gum tree, American sweetgum, Redgum Two forms of Sweet gum tree are recognised in horticulture: the round-lobed American sweet gum, L. styraciflua forma rotundiloba; and the Weeping American sweet gum, L. styraciflua forma pendula | ||||||||||||||||
| 3406 | Allergen, Trichophyton rubrum (m205) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Trichophyton spp. Source material: Spores and mycelium Common Names: Trichophyton The following 3 allergens are included in this overview: Trichophyton rubrum m205, Trichophyton ment. var goetzii m210, Trichophyton ment. var interdigitale m211 Mold A mold, which may result in allergy symptoms in sensitized individuals. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3431 | Ketones Panel | 82010 | Acetone Normal: Up to 3 mg/dL Blood Acetone concentrations are markedly elevated during diabetic or fasting ketoacidosis and may range from 10-70 mg/dL. The blood to plasma ratio of acetone is 1.0-1.1. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3481 | Copper, RBC | 82525 | Copper is an essential element that is a cofactor of many enzymes. Copper metabolism is disturbed in Wilson's disease, Menkes disease, primary biliary cirrhosis, and Indian childhood cirrhosis. Copper concentrations increase in acute phase reactions. Copper concentrations are decreased with nephrosis, malabsorption, and malnutrition. Copper concentrations are also useful to monitor patients, especially preterm newborns, on nutritional supplementation. Results of copper are often interpreted together with ceruloplasmin. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3500 | Allergen, Egg Yolk, (f75)IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Gallus spp. Source material: Freeze-dried egg yolk | ||||||||||||||||
| 3502 | Allergen, Sesame, (f10) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Sesamum indicum Source material: Unpolished seeds Family: Pedaliaceae Common Names: Sesame seed, Sesame, Benne seed Other species of Sesame include S. indicum, S. radiatum, S. schum, and S. thoron. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3504 | Allergen, Strawberry, (f44) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Fragaria vesca Source material: Fresh fruit Family: Rosaceae Common Names: Strawberry Other important Strawberry species: F. ananassa, F. alpina, F. chiloensis, F. virginiana Food A food, which may result in allergy symptoms in sensitized individual. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3506 | Allergen, Chicken, (f83) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Gallus spp. Source material: Freeze-dried, raw meat Family: Galliformes Chicken serum albumin may induce a cross-sensitization between egg and chicken proteins. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3508 | Allergen, Oyster, (f290) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Ostrea edulis Source material: Fresh whole oyster Family: Ostreidae Oyster and crustacea extracts show common antigenic structures. Allergen Exposure: Oysters are eaten raw, cooked or smoked. Oyster sauce is used for flavouring of various dishes. Unexpected exposure: Undeclared oyster sauce in various dishes. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3510 | Allergen, Pistachio, (f203) IgE | 86003 | Code: f203 Latin name: Pistacia vera Source material: Shelled nuts Family: Anacardiaceae Common Names: Pistachio, Pistachio nut | ||||||||||||||||
| 3512 | Allergen, Pine nut, (f253) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Pinus edulis Family: Pinaceae Common Names: Pine nut, Pignoles, Pinon nut, Pignola, Pinyon nut, Pine kernals | ||||||||||||||||
| 3514 | Allergen, Ovomucoid, (f233) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Gallus domesticus Source material: nGal d 1 is purified from egg extract | ||||||||||||||||
| 3515 | KPC Allergy Panel | ||||||||||||||||||
| 3516 | Allergen, Casein, (f78) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Bos spp. Source material: Purified bovine casein Casein is a major allergen in milk and the main protein constituent in cheese. Allergen Exposure: Milk and dairy products, especially cheese. Food containing milk. Casein is a heat stable major allergen in milk and the main protein constituent in cheese. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3518 | Allergen, Beta-lactoglob,(f77) IgE | 86003 | Source material: nBos d 5 is purified from milk extract. Milk contains more than 40 proteins, and all of them may act as human species antigens. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3522 | Allergen, Mountain Cedar (t6) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Juniperus sabinoides Source material: Pollen Family: Cupressaceae Common Names: Mountain juniper, Mountain cedar, Ashe juniper | ||||||||||||||||
| 3524 | Allergen, Birch,(t3) IgE | 86003 | Source material: Pollen Common Names: Common Silver Birch, Common Birch, Birch, Birch tree Synonym: B. pendula Birches, Betula spp., are boreal and temperate trees and shrubs, with around 50 species worldwide and 12 species native to North America (1). River Birch (B. nigra) and White or Paper Birch (B. papyrifera) are common to North America, whereas Common Silver Birch (B. verrucosa) is the prevalent European species (2). | ||||||||||||||||
| 3526 | Allergen, Walnut, (t10) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Juglans californica Source material: Pollen Family: Juglandaceae Common Names: California Black Walnut, California walnut, Jupiter's Nuts, Carya persica (Greek), Carya basilike (Greek) | ||||||||||||||||
| 3528 | Allergen, Cockroach, (i6) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Blatella germanica Source material: Whole insect Family: Blattellidae Common Names: Cockroach, Roach, German cockroach Although disagreement exists, most schemata place Cockroaches in class Insecta, order Blattaria, suborder Blattoidea, and families Blattidae, Blattellidae, Polyphagidae, Blaberidae, and Cryptocercidae. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3530 | Allergen, Goat Milk, (f409) IgE | 86003 | |||||||||||||||||
| 3532 | Allergen, Redtop(Bentgrass) g9 | 86003 | Latin name: Agrostis stolonifera Source material: Pollen Family: Poaceae (Gramineae) Sub Family: Pooideae Tribe: Agrostideae Common Names: Redtop, Bentgrass, Water Bent grass, Creeping Bent, Creeping Bentgrass, Carpet Bentgrass; also see below. Synonyms: A. lachnanthis, A. gigantea, A. alba | ||||||||||||||||
| 3534 | Allergen, Maple, Box-Elder (t1) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Acer negundo Source material: Pollen Family: Aceraceae Common Names: Box elder, Maple ash, Ash maple, Ash leaf maple, Manitoba maple, Box elder maple, Western box elder, Black ash, California boxelder, Cutleaf maple, Cut-leaved maple, Negundo maple, Red river maple, Stinking ash, Sugar ash, Three-leaved maple | ||||||||||||||||
| 3536 | Allergen, Common Pigweed, (w14) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Amaranthus retroflexus Source material: Pollen Family: Amaranthaceae Common Names: Common Pigweed, Redroot Pigweed Note: Lamb's quarters (Chenopodium album) is occasionally also called Pigweed or Smooth pigweed but does not belong to the Amaranthaceae family. There is a particular resemblance in the cotyledon stage, but Lamb's quarters cotyledons often have a mealy grey cast and the first true leaves are alternate, unlike those of any of the Pigweed species. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3538 | Allergen, House dust, Greer (h1) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Greer Labs., Inc Mite, cockroach and animal allergens are major components of house dust. For more information, see Insects and Mites. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3539 | Allergen, House dust, Holl (h2) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Hollister-Stier Labs. Mite, cockroach and animal allergens are major components of house dust. For more information, see Insects and Mites. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3540 | Allergen, Nettle, (w20) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Urtica dioica Source material: Pollen Family: Urticaceae Common Names: Nettle, Stinging Nettle, American Stinging Nettle, European Stinging Nettle, Hoary Nettle, Hairy Nettle The following five subspecies are currently recognised: U. dioica subsp. dioica (European stinging nettle), Europe, Asia, northern Africa; U. dioica subsp. afghanica, Southwestern and central Asia (Gazaneh in Iran); U. dioica subsp. gansuensis, Eastern Asia (China); U. dioica subsp. gracilis (Ait.) Selander (American stinging nettle), North America; U. dioica subsp. holosericea (Nutt.) Thorne (hairy nettle), North America. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3542 | Tissue Pathology / Biopsy | The nature of possible underlying disease states can often be detected by microscopically visualizing histologic changes in tissue biopsies.H and E SectionsPunch BiopsySkin Lesion | Preparation of each submitted sample and microscopic interpretation by a pathologist. The fee for service will vary depending upon the number of specimens submitted, the size and complexity of the specimen and difficulty of diagnosis. Specimens requiring a decalcification procedure will be performed at an additional charge (CPT code(s): 88311). Special stains (CPT code(s): 88312 (each stain) or 88313 (each stain)) and/or IHC immunohistochemistry stains (CPT code(s): 88342 (each antibody)) may be ordered at the discretion of the pathologist. These services will be performed at an additional charge. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3544 | Allergen, Fire Ant, (i70) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Solenopsis invicta Source material: Whole insect bodies Family: Myrmicidae Insect An insect, which may result in allergy symptoms in sensitized individuals. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3546 | Allergen, Cashew, (f202) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Anacardium occidentale Source material: Shelled nuts Family: Anacardiaceae The Cashew nut comes from the Cashew nut tree, a member of the Anacardiaceae family, which includes a number of dermatitis-inducing plants such as poison ivy, poison oak, poison sumac and lacquer sumac. The tree is native to Brazil but is grown in other parts of the world, and the nut is now also exported from southern India, Mozambique, Tanzania and Kenya. This is a small perennial evergreen tree growing to 12 m tall, with a short, often irregularly-shaped trunk. The leaves are simple, alternate, spirally arranged, leathery, elliptic or obovate, up to 22 cm long and 15 cm broad, with a smooth margin. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3548 | Allergen, A. alternata, (m6) IgE | 86003 | A. alternata, growing commonly on vegetation, is a member of the imperfect fungi and is one of the most important among the allergenic fungi. Brown segmented mycelia give rise to simple or solitary conidiophores, which may produce solitary apical spores, or a string of spores. The spores produced by imperfect fungi vary in shape, size, texture, colour, number of cells, and thickness of the cell wall (1). Although other Alternaria species are probably also relevant clinically, in particular as a result of cross-reactivity of the species, most research has been directed toward A. alternata. Alternaria is one of the main allergens affecting children. In temperate climates, airborne Alternaria spores are detectable from May to November, with peaks in late summer and autumn (3). Dispersion of Alternaria spores occurs during dry periods. These feature higher wind velocity and lower relative humidity, which result in peak dispersion during sunny afternoon periods (4). | ||||||||||||||||
| 3550 | Allergen, Gluten, (f79) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Common Source material: Gluten from Wheat Common Names: Gluten, Tri a Gluten, Gliadin, Gamma-Gliadin, Omega-gliadin | ||||||||||||||||
| 3552 | Allergen, English plantain, (w9) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Plantago lanceolata Source material: Pollen Family: Plantaginaceae Common Names: English Plantain, Ribwort Plantain, Ribwort | ||||||||||||||||
| 3554 | Allergen, Green Bean, (f315) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Phaseolus vulgaris Source material: Fresh beans Family: Fabaceae (Leguminosae) Common Names: Green bean, Common bean, French bean, String bean, Snap bean, Wax bean, Haricot bean | ||||||||||||||||
| 3556 | Allergen, Rye, (f5) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Secale cereale Source material: Untreated planting seeds Family: Poaceae (Gramineae) Common Names: Rye, Rogge There is a need to differentiate between Rye the foodstuff (Secale cereale), Cultivated Rye grass pollen (Secale cereale) g12, Rye grass pollen (Lolium perenne) g5, and Wild Rye grass pollen (Elymus tricoides) g70. This distantly related genus, Elymus, contains species known as Wild Ryes, which are used as cover and for forage. A Wheat hybrid is known as Giant Rye. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3557 | Gabapentin | 80171 | Gabapentin is an anticonvulsant drug commonly used as adjunctive therapy to treat partial seizures. Therapeutic drug monitoring is useful to optimize dose and to avoid toxicity. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3558 | Allergen, Meadow fescue, (g4) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Festuca pratensis Source material: Pollen Family: Poaceae (Graminae) Sub Family: Pooideae Tribe: Poeae Common Names: Meadow Fescue, Tall Fescue, Taller Fescue, Giant Fescue, English Bluegrass | ||||||||||||||||
| 3560 | Allergen,Sugar Cane,F21, IgE | 86003 | |||||||||||||||||
| 3668 | Phenytoin (Dilantin), Serum | 80185 | Monitoring for appropriate therapeutic concentration of phenytoinAssessing compliance or toxicity | ||||||||||||||||
| 3670 | Phenobarbital (luminal), Serum | 80181 | Monitoring for appropriate therapeutic concentration of phenobarbitalAssessing compliance or toxicity | ||||||||||||||||
| 3706 | Allergen, White Pine (t16) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Pinus strobus Source material: Pollen Family: Pinaceae Common Names: White pine, Eastern white pine, Northern white pine, Weymouth pine Not to be confused with the Australian pine tree (Casuarina equisetifolia) t73. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3716 | Allergen,D. pteronyssinus (d1), IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Dermatophagoides pteronyssinus Source material: Whole body culture Family: Pyroglyphidae Common Names: House dust mite, Dust mite | ||||||||||||||||
| 3718 | Allergen, D farinae, (d2) IgE | 86003 | Code: d2 Latin name: Dermatophagoides farinae Source material: Whole body culture Family: Pyroglyphidae Common Names: House dust mite, dust mite | ||||||||||||||||
| 3720 | Allergen, C. herbarum, (m2) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Cladosporium herbarum (obsolete name Hormodendrum) MoldA mold, which may result in allergy symptoms in sensitized individuals. Cladosporium is the most frequently encountered mold in the air. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3729 | Allergen, Fusarium moniliforme (m9) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Fusarium proliferatum/F.moniliforme Source material: Spores and mycelium Family: Hypocreaceae Common Names: Fusarium proliferatum, Fusarium moniliforme Mold A mold, which may result in allergy symptoms in sensitized individuals. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3731 | Allergen, American cockroach (i206) IgE | 86003 | An insect, which may result in allergy symptoms in sensitized individuals. Cockroaches are probably the oldest insect in the world and have been found in fossil records. Over 3,500 Cockroach species exist worldwide. Although they are cosmopolitan, they are found mainly in warmer, rich forest environments. In the United States, there are approximately 31 genera and 74 species of Cockroach, the majority having been introduced. Around 50 species of Cockroaches across the world have adapted to live in or around buildings. (1) Most Cockroaches have a flattened, oval shape, spiny legs, wings, and long, filamentous antennae. Immature stages are smaller and have undeveloped wings but resemble the adults in most other respects. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3732 | Allergen, Epicoccum purpurascens (m14) IgE | 86003 | Epicoccum is a secondary decomposer of plants, soil, paper and textiles. It is very common on dying substrates, where abundant sporulation can be observed. Small black pustules of E. purpurascens are frequently found on dead parts of numerous plants. It has also been isolated from cereals, fruits, polluted fresh water, compost beds, insects, human skin and sputum. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3734 | Allergen, Rhizopus nigricans (m11) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Rhizopus nigricans Source material: Spores and mycelium Family: Mucoraceae Mold A mold, which may result in allergy symptoms in sensitized individuals. Allergen Exposure: Fungi can be found throughout the world. They may live or be found in indoor as well as outdoor environments. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3735 | Allergen, Alder (t2) IgE | 86003 | |||||||||||||||||
| 3737 | Allergen, Poppy Seed (f224) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Papaver somniferum Source material: White & blue seeds Family: Papaveraceae Common Names: Poppy, Opium poppy, Blue bread seed poppy, White poppy Important other varieties are: Papaver rhoeus L., known as Corn or Field poppy, and native to Europe and Asia; the alkaloids rhoeadine, morphine, and papaverine have been reported in this species. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3749 | Allergen, Olive Tree (t9) IgE | 86003 | |||||||||||||||||
| 3930 | Fecal Leukocyte Stain | 89055 | The presence of leukocytes is an indicator of inflammation. Generally, inflammation is a product of bacteria-host interaction. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3946 | Tick (and Other Arthropods) ID | 87168 | |||||||||||||||||
| 3967 | Fecal Fat, Qualitative | 82705 | Results may indicate malabsorption or maldigestion. False positive results can occur due to mineral oil or castor oil present in the specimen. Large number of neutral fat globules may indicate steatorrhea. | ||||||||||||||||
| 3968 | Culture, Yeast with Direct Fluorescent KOH | 87102, 87206 | The clinical significance of an isolate varies with the identification, source, and clinical symptoms manifested. | If culture is positive, identification will be performed at an additional charge (CPT code(s): 87106 or 87140 or 87143 or 87149 or 87158). | |||||||||||||||
| 4000 | Hemoglobin A1c with eAG | 83036 | To assist with control of blood glucose levels, the American Diabetes Association (ADA) has recommended glycated hemoglobin testing (HbA1c) twice a year for patients with stable glycemia, and quarterly for patients with poor glucose control. Interpretative ranges are based on ADA guidelines. | ||||||||||||||||
| 4002 | Urea Nitrogen, Serum (BUN) | 84520 | Urea is the principle waste product of protein catabolism. BUN is most commonly measured in the diagnosis and treatment of certain renal and metabolic diseases. Increased BUN concentration may result from increased production of urea due to (1) diet or excessive destruction of cellular proteins as occurs in massive infection and fevers, (2) reduced renal perfusion resulting from dehydration or heart failure, (3) nearly all types of kidney disease, and (4) mechanical obstruction to urine excretion such as is caused by stones, tumors, infection, or stricture. Decreased urea levels are less frequent and occur primarily in advanced liver disease and in overhydration. | ||||||||||||||||
| 4004 | Glucose, Serum | 82947 | Glucose levels may be abnormally high (hyperglycemia) or abnormally low (hypoglycemia). Glucose measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of carbohydrate metabolic disorders including diabetes mellitus, idiopathic hypoglycemia, and pancreatic islet cell neoplasm. | ||||||||||||||||
| 4006 | CMP with eGFR | 80053 | Albumin, Albumin/Globulin Ratio (calculated), Alkaline Phosphatase, ALT, AST, Anion Gap, BUN/Creatinine Ratio (calculated), Calcium, Carbon Dioxide, Chloride, Creatinine with GFR Estimated, Globulin (calculated), Glucose, Potassium, Sodium, Total Bilirubin, Total Protein, Urea Nitrogen, eGFR.eGFR is intended for patients with stable renal functio | ||||||||||||||||
| 4008 | Amylase, Serum | 82150 001 | The major sources of amylase are the pancreas and the salivary glands. The most common cause of elevation of serum amylase is inflammation of the pancreas (pancreatitis). In acute pancreatitis, serum amylase begins to rise within 6-24 hours, remains elevated for a few days and returns to normal in 3-7 days. Other causes of elevated serum amylase are inflammation of salivary glands (mumps), biliary tract disease and bowel obstruction. Elevated serum amylase can also be seen with drugs (e.g., morphine) which constrict the pancreatic duct sphincter preventing excretion of amylase into the intestine. | ||||||||||||||||
| 4009 | eGFR | ||||||||||||||||||
| 4010 | Creatinine, Serum | 82565 | Serum creatinine is useful in the evaluation of kidney function and in monitoring renal dialysis. A serum creatinine result within the reference range does not rule out renal function impairment: serum creatinine is not sensitive to early renal damage since it varies with age, gender and ethnic background. The impact of these variables can be reduced by an estimation of the glomerular filtration rate using an equation that includes serum creatinine, age and gender. | ||||||||||||||||
| 4012 | Sodium, Serum | 84295 | Sodium assays are important in assessing acid-base balance, water balance, water intoxication, and dehydration.Sodium is the primary extracellular cation. Sodium is responsible for almost one half the osmolality of the plasma and therefore plays a central role in maintaining the normal distribution of water and the osmotic pressure in the extracellular fluid compartment. The amount of sodium in the body is a reflection of the balance between sodium intake and output. | ||||||||||||||||
| 4014 | Potassium, Serum | 84132 | Evaluation of electrolyte balance, cardiac arrhythmia, muscular weakness, hepatic encephalopathy, and renal failure Potassium should be monitored during treatment of many conditions but especially in diabetic ketoacidosis and any intravenous therapy for fluid replacement. | ||||||||||||||||
| 4016 | Chloride, Serum | 82435 | Serum chloride is the major extracellular anion and counter-balances the major cation, sodium, maintaining electrical neutrality of the body fluids. Two thirds of the total anion concentration in extracellular fluids is chloride and it is significantly involved in maintaining proper hydration and osmotic pressure. Movement of chloride ions across the red blood cell membrane is essential for the transport of biocarbonate ions in response to changing concentrations of carbon dioxide. Chloride measurements are used in the diagnosis and treatment of electrolyte and metabolic disorders such as cystic fibrosis and diabetic acidosis. | ||||||||||||||||
| 4018 | Calcium, Serum | 82310 | Serum calcium is involved in the regulation of neuromuscular and enzyme activity, bone metabolism and blood coagulation. Calcium blood levels are controlled by a complex interaction of parathyroid hormone, vitamin D, calcitonin and adrenal cortical steroids. Calcium measurements are useful in the diagnosis of parathyroid disease, some bone disorders and chronic renal disease. A low level of calcium may result in tetany. | ||||||||||||||||
| 4020 | Protein, Total, Serum | 84155 | Plasma proteins are synthesized predominantly in the liver; immunoglobulins are synthesized by mononuclear cells of lymph nodes, spleen and bone marrow. The 2 general causes of alterations of serum total protein are a change in the volume of plasma water and a change in the concentration of 1 or more of the specific proteins in the plasma. Of the individual serum proteins, albumin is present in such high concentrations that low levels of this protein alone may cause pypoproteinemia. Hemoconcentration (decrease in the volume of plasma water) results in relative hyperproteinemia; hemodilution results in relative hypoproteinemia. In both situations, concentrations of all the individual plasma proteins are affected to the same degree.Hyperproteinemia may be seen in dehydration due to inadequate water intake or to excessive water loss (eg, severe vomiting, diarrhea, Addison disease, and diabetic acidosis) or as a result of increased production of proteins. Increased polyclonal protein production is seen in reactive, inflammatory processes; increased monoclonal protein production is seen in some hematopoietic neoplasms (eg, multiple myeloma, Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia, monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance). | ||||||||||||||||
| 4024 | Carbon Dioxide, Total | 82374 | Evaluate the total carbonate buffering system in the body, acid-base balance. High results may represent respiratory acidosis with CO2 retention, or metabolic alkalosis (eg, prolonged vomiting). Low value may indicate respiratory alkalosis as in hyperventilation or metabolic acidosis (eg, diabetes with ketoacidosis). | ||||||||||||||||
| 4030 | Gamma Glutamyl Transferase (GGT) | 82977 | Elevated GGT is found in all forms of liver disease. Measurement of GGT is used in the diagnosis and treatment of alcoholic cirrhosis, as well as primary and secondary liver tumors. It is more sensitive than alkaline phosphatase, the transaminases, and leucine aminopeptidase in detecting obstructive jaundice, cholangitis, and cholecystitis. Normal levels of GGT are seen in skeletal diseases; thus, GGT in serum can be used to ascertain whether a disease, suggested by elevated alkaline phosphatase, is skeletal or hepatobiliary. | ||||||||||||||||
| 4032 | CPK, Total | 82550 | Test for myocardial infarction and skeletal muscle damage. Elevated results may be due to: myocarditis, myocardial infarction (heart attack), muscular dystrophy, muscle trauma or excessive exercise. | ||||||||||||||||
| 4040 | Albumin, Serum | 82040 | Albumin is a carbohydrate-free protein, which constitutes 55 percent to 65 percent of total plasma protein. It maintains oncotic plasma pressure, is involved in the transport and storage of a wide variety of ligands, and is a source of endogenous amino acids. Albumin binds and solubilizes various compounds, including bilirubin, calcium, long-chain fatty acids, toxic heavy metal ions, and numerous pharmaceuticals. Hypoalbuminemia is caused by several factors: impaired synthesis due either to liver disease (primary) or due to diminished protein intake (secondary), increased catabolism as a result of tissue damage and inflammation, malabsorption of amino acids, and increased renal excretion (eg, nephrotic syndrome). | ||||||||||||||||
| 4042 | Alkaline Phosphatase, Serum(ALP) | 84075 | Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) is present in a number of tissues including liver, bone, intestine, and placenta. Serum ALP is of interest in the diagnosis of 2 main groups of conditions-hepatobiliary disease and bone disease associated with increased osteoblastic activity. A rise in ALP activity occurs with all forms of cholestasis, particularly with obstructive jaundice. The response of the liver to any form of biliary tree obstruction is to synthesize more ALP. The main site of new enzyme synthesis is the hepatocytes adjacent to the biliary canaliculi. ALP also is elevated in disorders of the skeletal system that involve osteoblast hyperactivity and bone remodeling, such as Paget disease, hyperparathyroidism, rickets and osteomalacia, fractures, and malignant tumors. A considerable rise in alkaline phosphatase activity caused by increased osteoblast activity following accelerated bone growth is sometimes seen in children and juveniles. | ||||||||||||||||
| 4046 | AST (SGOT) | 84450 | AST is widely distributed throughout the tissues with significant amounts being in the heart and liver. Lesser amounts are found in skeletal muscles, kidneys, pancreas, spleen, lungs, and brain. Injury to these tissues results in the release of the AST enzyme to general circulation. In myocardial infarction, serum AST may begin to rise within 6-8 hours after onset, peak within two days and return to normal by the fourth or fifth day post infarction. An increase in serum AST is also found with hepatitis, liver necrosis, cirrhosis, and liver metastasis. | ||||||||||||||||
| 4048 | ALT (SGPT) | 84460 | Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) is present primarily in liver cells. In viral hepatitis and other forms of liver disease associated with hepatic necrosis, serum ALT is elevated even before the clinical signs and symptoms of the disease appear. Although serum levels of both aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and ALT become elevated whenever disease processes affect liver cell integrity, ALT is a more liver-specific enzyme. Serum elevations of ALT are rarely observed in conditions other than parenchymal liver disease. Moreover, the elevation of ALT activity persists longer than does AST activity. | ||||||||||||||||
| 4050 | Phosphorus, Serum | 84100 | Diagnosis and management of a variety of disorders including bone, parathyroid, and renal disease. Hypophosphatemia may have 4 general causes: shift of phosphate from extracellular to intracellular, renal phosphate wasting, loss from the gastrointestinal tract, and loss from intracellular stores. Hyperphosphatemia is usually secondary to an inability of the kidneys to excrete phosphate. Other factors may relate to increased intake or a shift of phosphate from the tissues into the extracellular fluid. | ||||||||||||||||
| 4052 | Magnesium, Serum | 83735 | Magnesium is an essential trace element. Deficiency leads to irritability, neuromuscular abnormalities, cardiac and renal damage. Its salts are used as antacids and cathartics. Excessive amount may cause CNS depression, loss of muscle tone, respiratory and cardiac arrest. | ||||||||||||||||
| 4054 | Bilirubin, Total | 82247 | Measurement of the levels of bilirubin is used in the diagnosis and treatment of liver, hemolytic, hematologic, and metabolic disorders, including hepatitis and gallbladder obstructive disease. | ||||||||||||||||
| 4056 | Bilirubin, Direct | 82248 | Evaluate liver and biliary disease. Increased direct bilirubin occurs with biliary diseases, including both intrahepatic and extrahepatic lesions. Hepatocellular causes of elevation include hepatitis, cirrhosis, and advanced neoplastic states. Increased with cholestatic drug reactions, Dubin-Johnson syndrome, and Rotor syndrome. In the latter two syndromes, the level is usually <5 mg/dL. | ||||||||||||||||
| 4057 | Bilirubin, Indirect | Erythrocytes generated in the bone marrow are disposed of in the spleen when they get old or damaged. This releases hemoglobin, which is broken down to heme as the globin parts are turned into amino acids. The heme is then turned into unconjugated bilirubin in the reticuloendothelial cells of the spleen. This unconjugated bilirubin is not soluble in water, due to intramolecular hydrogen bonding. It is then bound to albumin and sent to the liver. The measurement of direct bilirubin depends on its reaction with diazosulfanilic acid to create azobilirubin. However, unconjugated bilirubin also reacts slowly with diazosulfanilic acid, so that the measured indirect bilirubin is an underestimate of the true unconjugated concentration. | |||||||||||||||||
| 4058 | HDL Cholesterol | 83718 | HDL cholesterol is inversely related to the risk for cardiovascular disease. It increases following regular exercise, moderate alcohol consumption and with oral estrogen therapy. Decreased levels are associated with obesity, stress, cigarette smoking and diabetes mellitus. | ||||||||||||||||
| 4059 | Bile Acids, Total | 82239 | An increase in serum bile acids concentration in the fasting state or postprandial is considered to be a specific indicator of liver disease. A decreased level indicates bile acid malabsorption, possibly due to ileal dysfunction. | ||||||||||||||||
| 4060 | Cholesterol, Total | 82465 | Total LDL and HDL cholesterol, in conjunction with a triglyceride determination, provide valuable information for the risk of coronary artery disease. Total serum cholesterol analysis is useful in the diagnosis of hyperlipoproteinemia, atherosclerosis, hepatic and thyroid diseases. | ||||||||||||||||
| 4062 | Triglycerides | 84478 | Triglycerides are esters of the trihydric alcohol glycerol with 3 long-chain fatty acids. They are partly synthesized in the liver and partly derived from the diet.Increased plasma triglyceride levels are indicative of a metabolic abnormality and, along with elevated cholesterol, are considered a risk factor for atherosclerotic disease. Hyperlipidemia may be inherited or be associated with biliary obstruction, diabetes mellitus, nephrotic syndrome, renal failure, or metabolic disorders related to endocrinopathies. Increased triglycerides may also be medication-induced (eg, prednisone).Since cholesterol and triglycerides can vary independently, measurement of both is more meaningful than the measurement of cholesterol only. | ||||||||||||||||
| 4066 | Non-HDL Cholesterol | The third report of the National Cholesterol Education Program (NCEP) Expert Panel's revised guidelines1 for the treatment of cholesterol in adults called for increased attention to the metabolic syndrome and diabetes. These guidelines highlighted the increased inaccuracy of the LDL-C measurement in these patients because of elevated triglycerides. To overcome the inaccuracy of the calculated LDL-C method when triglycerides are elevated, measurement of non-high-density lipoprotein (non-LDL-C) was recommended as a better means to follow these patients toward their treatment goals. Non-HDL-C is a calculation (total cholesterol minus HDL-C), ie, the sum of the VLDL-C, LDL-C, and IDL-C. While LDL-C has long been the primary focus of cholesterol reduction efforts. | Cholesterol, total; high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol; non-HDL cholesterol (calculation) | ||||||||||||||||
| 4068 | LDL Cholesterol (Direct) | 83721 | LDL cholesterol is a key factor in the pathogenesis of atherosclerosis and Coronary Artery Disease (CAD), while HDL cholesterol has often been observed to have a protective effect. Even within the normal range of total cholesterol concentrations, an increase in LDL cholesterol can produce an associated increased risk for CAD. LDL cholesterol binds to receptor sites on macrophages in blood vessel walls inciting several changes to the blood wall which enhance atherosclerotic plaque development. | ||||||||||||||||
| 4070 | Uric Acid, Serum | 84550 | Diagnosis and treatment of renal failure. Monitoring patients receiving cytotoxic drugs and a variety of other disorders, including gout, leukemia, psoriasis, starvation and other wasting conditions.Uric acid is the final product of purine metabolism in humans. Purines, compounds that are vital components of nucleic acids and coenzymes, may be synthesized in the body or they may be obtained by ingesting foods rich in nucleic material (eg, liver, sweetbreads). Approximately 75 percent of the uric acid excreted is lost in the urine; most of the remainder is secreted into the gastrointestinal tract where it is degraded to allantoin and other compounds by bacterial enzymes | ||||||||||||||||
| 4075 | Iron, Serum | 83540 | Serum iron quantification is useful in confirming the diagnosis of iron-deficiency anemia or emochromatosis. The measurement of total iron binding in the same specimen may facilitate the clinician's ability to distinguish between low serum iron levels caused by iron deficiency from those related to inflammatory neoplastic disorders. The assay for iron measures the amount of iron which is bound to transferrin. The total iron binding capacity (TIBC) measures the amount of iron that would appear in blood if all the transferrin were saturated with iron. It is an indirect measurement of transferrin concentrations but expressed as an iron measurement. To obtain the percent saturation, the serum iron is divided by the TIBC which gives the actual amount of saturated transferrin. The percent saturation is low in iron deficiency and high in iron storage diseases. | ||||||||||||||||
| 4080 | LDH | 83615 | Elevations in serum lactate dehydrogenase occur from myocardial infarction, liver disease, pernicious and megaloblastic anemia, pulmonary emboli, malignancies, and muscular dystrophy. Since lactic dehydrogenase is present in many body tissues, it's diagnosis usefulness is limited. Tissue specificity may be enhanced by isoenzyme analysis. | ||||||||||||||||
| 4082 | CRP, Quant | 86140 | Detecting systemic inflammatory processes. Detecting infection and assessing response to antibiotic treatment of bacterial infections. Differentiating between active and inactive disease forms with concurrent infection. | ||||||||||||||||
| 4086 | Lipase, Serum | 83690 | Investigating pancreatic disorders, usually pancreatitis. Lipases are enzymes that hydrolyze glycerol esters of long-chain fatty acids and produce fatty acids and 2-acylglycerol. Bile salts and a cofactor, colipase, are required for full catalytic activity and greatest specificity. The pancreas is the primary source of serum lipase. Both lipase and colipase are synthesized in the pancreatic acinar cells and secreted by the pancreas in roughly equimolar amounts. Lipase is filtered and reabsorbed by the kidneys. Pancreatic injury results in increased serum lipase levels. | ||||||||||||||||
| 4100 | TIBC | 83540 | Screening for chronic iron overload diseases, particularly hereditary hemochromatosis | ||||||||||||||||
| 4105 | Apolipoprotein A-1 | 82172 | Apolipoprotein A1 (ApoA1) is the primary protein associated with high-density lipoprotein (HDL) particles, and plays a central role in reverse cholesterol transport. (1) HDL cholesterol (HDL-C) and ApoA1 concentrations are inversely related to the risk for coronary artery disease (CAD). (2) There are a variable number of ApoA1 proteins per HDL particle. Therefore, ApoA1 is not a 1: 1 surrogate marker for HDL particles. Similarly, the number of ApoA1 proteins and the amount of cholesterol contained in HDL particles is highly variable. This heterogeneity has led to unique clinical findings related to ApoA1 compared with HDL-C. | ||||||||||||||||
| 4108 | Apolipoprotein B | 82172 | Apolipoprotein B (APO B) has been reported to be a powerful indicator of CAD. In some patients with CAD, APO B is elevated even in the presence of normal LDL cholesterol. | ||||||||||||||||
| 4120 | Microalbumin, Random Urine | 82043 | Microalbumin is albumin excreted in the urine and is a sensitive marker of nephropathy. It is used to screen for early renal diseases in diabetic patients. | ||||||||||||||||
| 4225 | Ferritin, Serum | 82728 | Aiding in the diagnosis of iron deficiency and iron overload conditions. Differentiating iron deficiency anemia and anemia of chronic disease. Ferritin is a large spherical protein consisting of 24 oncovalently linked subunits with a molecular weight of approximately 450,000 daltons. The subunits form a shell surrounding a central core containing variable amounts of ferric hydroxyphosphate. One molecule of ferritin is capable of binding between 4,000 and 5,000 atoms of iron, making ferritin the major iron storage protein for the body. Ferritin is found chiefly in the cytoplasm of cells of the reticuloendothelial system and is a constituent of normal human serum. The concentration of ferritin is directly proportional to the total iron stores in the body, resulting in serum ferritin concentrations becoming a common diagnostic tool in the evaluation of iron status. | ||||||||||||||||
| 4235 | HISTAMINE, WHOLE BLOOD | 83088 | Assays for histamine are little used outside of research settings. Elevated values are found in systemic mastocytosis, urticaria, anaphylaxis, and following provocative testing. | ||||||||||||||||
| 4260 | Lipid Panel | 80061 | Evaluation of cardiovascular risk. Cardiovascular disease is the number one cause of death in the United States with an estimated 1.5 million heart attacks and 0.5 million strokes occurring annually, many in individuals who have no prior symptoms. Prevention of ischemic cardiovascular events is key. Risk factors including age, smoking status, hypertension, diabetes, cholesterol, and HDL cholesterol, are used by physicians to identify individuals likely to have an ischemic event. | Total Cholesterol, HDL Cholesterol, Triglycerides, LDL-Cholesterol (calculated), Cholesterol/HDL Ratio (calculated), Non-HDL Cholesterol (calculated).Lipid Panel will reflex to LDL Cholesterol Direct (CPT 83721) if Triglycerides are grater then 400 mg/dL | |||||||||||||||
| 4280 | Basic Metabolic Panel (8) | 80048 | BUN/Creatinine Ratio (calculated), Calcium, Carbon Dioxide, Chloride, Creatinine with GFR Estimated, Glucose, Potassium, Sodium, Urea Nitrogen (BUN) | ||||||||||||||||
| 4281 | BMP with eGFR | 80048 | BUN/Creatinine Ratio (calculated), Calcium, Carbon Dioxide, Chloride, Creatinine with GFR Estimated, Glucose, Potassium, Sodium, Urea Nitrogen (BUN) | ||||||||||||||||
| 4290 | Comp. Metabolic Panel (14) | 80053 | Albumin, Albumin/Globulin Ratio (calculated), Alkaline Phosphatase, ALT, AST, Anion Gap, BUN/Creatinine Ratio (calculated), Calcium, Carbon Dioxide, Chloride, Creatinine with GFR Estimated, Globulin (calculated), Glucose, Potassium, Sodium, Total Bilirubin, Total Protein, Urea Nitrogen | ||||||||||||||||
| 4300 | Electrolyte Panel | 80051 | Carbon Dioxide, Chloride, Potassium, Sodium | ||||||||||||||||
| 4330 | Rheumatoid Factor (RF) | 86431 | Elevated RF is found in collagen vascular diseases such as SLE, rheumatoid arthritis, scleroderma, Sjogren's syndrome, and in other conditions such as leprosy, tuberculosis, syphilis, malignancy, thyroid disease and in a significant percentage of otherwise normal elderly patients. | ||||||||||||||||
| 4350 | HEAVY METALS, URINE (ARSENIC,CADMIUM,COPPER,LEAD,MERCURY,ZINC) | Assess for heavy metal poisoning in the setting of an appropriate exposure history with symptoms such as abdominal pain, anemia, neuropathy of distal extremities, renal or hepatic damage, mental status changes, nail changes (eg, Mees lines). Screen for heavy metal poisoning and toxic exposure. Urine lead analysis is useful for organic lead exposure and to monitor efficacy of chelation therapy. Note: Blood is preferred for inorganic lead exposure monitoring. | |||||||||||||||||
| 4400 | Hepatic Function Panel (7) | 80076 | Total Protein, Albumin, Globulin (calculated), Albumin/Globulin Ratio (calculated), Total Bilirubin, Direct Bilirubin, Indirect Bilirubin (calculated), Alkaline Phosphatase, AST, ALT | ||||||||||||||||
| 4403 | Uric Acid, Body Fluid | 84560 | Analysis of synovial fluid plays a major role in the diagnosis of joint disease. | ||||||||||||||||
| 4410 | Hepatic Function Panel with Bile Acid | 80076, 82239 | Total Protein, Albumin, Globulin (calculated), Albumin/Globulin Ratio (calculated), Total Bilirubin, Direct Bilirubin, Indirect Bilirubin (calculated), Alkaline Phosphatase, AST, ALT and Total Bile Acid. | ||||||||||||||||
| 4411 | Lactate Dehydrogenase (LD) Isoenzyme Panel | 83615 | Lactate Dehydrogenase (LD) is an enzyme that is present in many different organs and tissues. LD Isoenzymes (LDI) are useful in distinguishing the different isoenzymes expressed differentially in tissues and organs, e.g., cardiac muscle, skeletal muscle, and liver. | LD Isoenzymes and LDH, Total | |||||||||||||||
| 4422 | Rubella Antibodies, IgM | 86762 | Rubella is an acute exanthematous viral infection of children and adults. Rash, fever and lymphadenopathy characterize the illness. While many infections are subclinical, this virus has the potential to cause fetal infection with resultant birth defects. In the absence of a current or recent infection, a demonstration of specific IgG on a serum sample is evidence of immunity to rubella. A positive rubella IgM result does not necessarily indicate current or recent infection. Without a history of exposure to rubella or symptoms consistent with rubella, the IgM result may be difficult to interpret. Rubella IgM can be false positive due to other causes (e.g., parvovirus, rheumatoid factor, cytomegalovirus). Rubella IgM may also persist for more than 12 months after vaccination or natural infection. For a serologic diagnosis of congenital rubella in the neonatal period, antibody to rubella virus should be measured in both infant and maternal sera. If IgM is detected in a newborn infants serum, it is probable that transplacental rubella infection has occurred. | ||||||||||||||||
| 4444 | UIBC | ||||||||||||||||||
| 4446 | Culture, Anaerobic and Aerobic | 87070, 87075, 87205 | Deep wound/abscess infections are often caused by a mixture of aerobic and anaerobic bacteria. | Culture, Aerobic Bacteria and Culture, Anaerobic Bacteria with Gram Stain | |||||||||||||||
| 4451 | Creatine Kinase Isoenzymes (CK Isoenzymes) with Total CK | 82550, 82552 | CK-BB, CK-MB, CK-MM and (CK) Total | ||||||||||||||||
| 4482 | Culture, Nasopharyngeal/Nasal | 87070 | Culture of the nose (as opposed to nasopharynx) is primarily for the detection of Staphylococcus aureus. The significance of other organisms is difficult to assess since this site and its discharges can easily be colonized by a variety of organisms. | If culture is positive, identification will be performed at an additional charge (CPT code(s): 87077 or 87143 or 87147 or 87140 or 87149). Antibiotic susceptibilities are only performed when appropriate (CPT code(s): 87181 or 87184 or 87185 or 87186). | |||||||||||||||
| 4500 | Renal Function Panel | 80069 | Albumin, BUN/Creatinine Ratio (calculated), Calcium, Carbon Dioxide, Chloride, Creatinine, Estimated Glomerular Filtration Rate (calculated), Glucose, Phosphate (as Phosphorus), Potassium, Sodium, Urea Nitrogen | ||||||||||||||||
| 4504 | Adiponectin | 83520 | Obesity is strongly associated with the pathogenesis of type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and cardiovascular disease. 1-4 Recentstudies have suggested that adipose tissue may play an important role in the development of these conditions and their complications through the secretion of various bioactive molecules referred to as adipokines. Adipokines contribute to the pathophysiology of obesity-linked disorders through their abilities to modulate inflammatory and metabolic processes. Diminished levels of adiponectin have been associated with the increased prevalence of obesity-linked cardiovascular diseases, including ischemic heart disease and peripheral artery disease. 3 Adiponectin is a plasma adipokine protein secreted specifically by adipose tissue. | ||||||||||||||||
| 4556 | Culture, Sputum/Lower Respiratory | 87070, 87205 | Isolation of potential respiratory pathogens can be useful in the diagnosis of respiratory tract infection. This specimen may contain normal oral flora. The significance of any isolate must be evaluated with this in mind. | Aerobic culture and Gram stainIf culture is positive, identification will be performed at an additional charge (CPT code(s): 87077 or 87140 or 87143 or 87147 or87149). Antibiotic susceptibilities are only performed when appropriate (CPT code(s): 87181 or 87184 or 87185 or 87186). | |||||||||||||||
| 4558 | Culture, Genital | 87070 | The significance of any isolate(s), in pure or mixed culture, must be assessed with respect to the source cultured, the organism's pathogenic potential, the possibility of colonization versus infection, and the number of other organisms recovered from thesame culture. | If culture is positive, identification will be performed at an additional charge (CPT code(s): 87077 or 87140 or 87143 or 87147 or 87149). Antibiotic susceptibilities are only performed when appropriate (CPT: 87181 or 87184 or 87185 or 87186). | |||||||||||||||
| 4562 | Cell Count and Differential, Synovial Fluid | 89051 | Immunologic, mechanical, chemical or bacteriologic damage may alter the permeability of the membrane and capillaries to produce varying degrees of inflammatory response. Various disorders produce changes in the chemical constituents of the joint fluid and in the type of cell population present. | Color, Appearance, Total Nucleated Cell Count, Neutrophils percent, Lymphocytes percent, Monocyte/Macrophage percent, Eosinophils percent, Synoviocytes percent | |||||||||||||||
| 4563 | Crystal,Synovial | 89060 | Clinical Significance: To rule out pathologic crystals. | ||||||||||||||||
| 4593 | TSH with reflex to Free T4 | TSH with Reflex to FT4 | |||||||||||||||||
| 4594 | TSH with reflex to Free T4 and Free T3 | TSH with Reflex to FT4 and FT3 | |||||||||||||||||
| 4606 | Culture, Fungus, Blood | 87103 | Blood culture results may aid in the diagnosis of systemic fungal infections. | If culture is positive, identification will be performed at an additional charge (CPT code(s): 87106 or 87107 or 87140 or 87143 or 87149 or 87158). | |||||||||||||||
| 4616 | Citric Acid, 24-Hour Urine with Creatinine | 82507, 82570 | Diagnosing risk factors for patients with calcium kidney stones Monitoring results of therapy in patients with calcium stones or renal tubular acidosis. | ||||||||||||||||
| 4696 | Nickel, Blood | 83885 | Test for detecting nickel toxicity in patients exposed to nickel carbonyl | ||||||||||||||||
| 4698 | CA 19-9 | 86301 | A large percentage of patients with gastrointestinal tumors (such as pancreatic, liver, gastric, colorectal tumors) and some other malignancies have been shown to have elevated serum CA 19-9 levels. Serum CA 19-9 levels may be useful for monitoring disease activity or predicting relapse following treatment. CA 19-9 should not be used as a screening test. | ||||||||||||||||
| 4723 | Platelet Antibody, Direct | ||||||||||||||||||
| 4847 | Prealbumin | 84134 | Assessing nutritional status, especially in monitoring the response to nutritional support in the acutely ill patient.Prealbumin is synthesized in the liver and acts as a binding protein for thyroxine and retinol-binding protein.The serum concentration of prealbumin reflects the synthesis capacity of the liver and is markedly diminished in malnutrition and other conditions.Due to its short half-life of approximately 2 days, prealbumin can be used for monitoring the nutritional status and efficacy of parenteral nutrition. | ||||||||||||||||
| 4862 | Tetanus Antitoxoid | 86774 | Tetanus is caused by clostridium tetani. Immunization with tetanus antitoxoid is effective with boosters. This test assesses tetanus antitoxoid antibody following booster immunization. Immunization supports an intact humoral antibody response. | ||||||||||||||||
| 4865 | Diphtheria Antitoxoid | 86648 | Assessment of an antibody response to tetanus and diphtheria toxoid vaccines. An aid to diagnose immunodeficiency. Diphtheria is an acute, contagious, febrile illness caused by the bacterium Corynebacterium diphtheriae. The disease is classically characterized by a combination of localized inflammation in the upper respiratory tract with the formation of a diphtheric pseudomembrane over the oropharynx, including the tonsils, pharynx, larynx and posterior nasal passages. Corynebacterium diphtheriae produces a potent diphtheria exotoxin which is absorbed systemically and can lead to cardiac failure and paralysis of the diaphragm. | ||||||||||||||||
| 4899 | NEURON SPECIFIC ENOLASE | 86316 | Tumor marker: NSE has no established role in screening for, or early detection of, neoplastic disease. Some investigators have found that, in patients with small cell lung carcinoma, NSE measured after the first cycle of chemotherapy is useful as an early and independent predictor of complete response and survival.7 In a study of 770 patients with small cell lung carcinoma treated in 9 centers, NSE has been used, together with disease stage and performance status, in a formula to calculate a prognostic index.8 Investigators from the National Cancer Institute in Milan have found serum NSE useful as in treatment monitoring and prognosis assessment in patients with neuroblastoma.9 Brain injury and dysfunction: Serum NSE is elevated in patients with traumatic brain injury and can be used to predict outcome.10 Likewise, serum NSE (S-NSE) is elevated in patients with stroke, but S-100, serum (a related protein) appears to correlate better with infarct size and outcome.2 In elderly patients undergoing coronary artery bypass grafting, the S-NSE at 24 hours correlates well with neuropsychologically measured cognitive function.11 In patients resuscitated after cardiac arrest, a S-NSE >33 ng/mL predicts coma.12 The NSE level in CSF correlates with the duration and outcome of status epilepticus.13 The NSE level in amniotic fluid is reported to be a potentially useful marker of brain injury in neonates.14 | ||||||||||||||||
| 4919 | von Willebrand Factor Antigen | 85246 | Von Willebrand Disease is the most common hereditary bleeding disorder; it may also be acquired. von Willebrand Factor is necessary for platelet adhesion to injured endothelium. von Willebrand Factor Antigen is useful in assessing the quantity of von Willebrand Factor. When combined with other tests, results are useful in categorizing the type of von Willebrand Disease. | ||||||||||||||||
| 4942 | Scleroderma Antibody (Scl-70) | 86235 | Evaluating patients with signs and symptoms of scleroderma and other connective tissue diseases in whom the test for antinuclear antibodies is positive | ||||||||||||||||
| 4944 | Beta-2 Microglobulin, Urine | 82232 | Beta-2-Microglobulin (B2M) is a low molecular weight protein that forms the light chain component of the histocompatibility antigen. It is synthesized by all nucleated cell types. It is an integral part of the class I MHC antigens and is present in all body fluids. B2M is filtered through the glomeruli of the kidney and is then reabsorbed and catabolised by the proximal tubular cells. In normal patients only trace amounts of B2M appear in the urine. Elevated urine B2M is seen in tubulo-interstitial disorders. Increased urine B2M is seen in cadmium exposure, diatrizoate, exercise, fever, nephrectomy, semen. There is evidence that monitoring B2M levels in HIV-infected individuals offers an independent predictor of progression to AIDS, leukemia and lymphoma. | ||||||||||||||||
| 4948 | Protein C Antigen | 85302 | Clinical** Gross hemolysis | ||||||||||||||||
| 5007 | Thyroid Progressive Panel | 84436 | TSH with reflex to FT4 and TT3 | ||||||||||||||||
| 5022 | Reducing Substances, Stool | 84376 | The presence of reducing substances is useful in the diagnosis of abnormalities in carbohydrate metabolism, i.e., sucrose and lactase. The unabsorbed sugars in stool are measured as reducing substances. | ||||||||||||||||
| 5042 | Vitamin B1 (Thiamine), Blood, LC/MS/MS | 84425 | Vitamin B1 deficiency is most often associated with alcoholism, chronic illness and following gastric by-pass surgery. Prolonged deficiency causes beriberi. Plasma vitamin B1 is useful in evaluating nutritional assessment and compliance, while whole blood vitamin B1 is useful in evaluating body stores. | ||||||||||||||||
| 5059 | Maternal Serum AFP | 82105 | Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) is used for prenatal screening. Maternal serum Alpha-Fetoprotein (AFP) elevation is associated with open neural tube defects, multiple gestation, placental anomalies, ventral abdominal wall defects, congenital nephrosis, and oligohydramnios. Follow-up for abnormal AFP results include genetic counseling, level II or III ultrasound examination and consideration of amniocentesis for chromosome and AFP analysis. MSAFP is not to be used as a screening test for chromosomal abnormalities. | AFP, Maternal Risk Interpretation | |||||||||||||||
| 5158 | Antithrombin III Antigen | 85301 | A decrease in Antithrombin III may predispose an individual to thrombosis and to failure to respond to heparin therapy. This can occur as a result of a congenital deficiency, secondary to liver transplant, DIC, nephrotic syndrome, cirrhosis, carcinoma, or in patients with chronic liver failure. | ||||||||||||||||
| 5215 | Nickel, Random Urine | 82570, 83885 | Urine nickel is the test of choice for detecting nickel toxicity in patients exposed to nickel carbonyl | Creatinine | |||||||||||||||
| 5244 | Catecholamines, Fractionated, Random Urine | 82384, 82570 | A first- and second-order screening test for the presumptive diagnosis of catecholamine-secreting pheochromocytomas and paragangliomas. Confirming positive plasma metanephrine results. | Creatinine, Norepinephrine, Epinephrine, Dopamine, and Total Catecholamines (calculated) | |||||||||||||||
| 5248 | Chromium, Serum | 82495 | Occupational exposure and exposure to environmental contamination of Chromium may lead to toxicity. The need for Chromium supplements is unproven. Supplements taken in excess may also lead to Chromium toxicity. | ||||||||||||||||
| 5309 | Flecainide | 80299 | Monitoring the Flecainide concentration is used to assure compliance and avoid toxicity of this cardiac drug used to treat ventricular tachycardia and premature contractions. | ||||||||||||||||
| 5439 | NEISSERIA MENINGITIDIS IgG | ||||||||||||||||||
| 5507 | Selenium, Serum/Plasma | 84255 | Selenium (Se) is a key component of a number of functional selenoproteins required for normal health. The best known of these are the antioxidant glutathione peroxidase enzymes, which remove hydrogen and damaging lipid and phospholipid hydroperoxides generated in vivo by free radicals and other oxygen-derived species. If not removed, lipid hydroperoxides impair membrane structure and function and cause blood-clotting disturbances by decreasing the production of prostacyclin while increasing the production of thromboxane | ||||||||||||||||
| 5519 | Porphyrins, Fractionated, Plasma | 82542 | To diagnose certain types of porphyria. To diagnose patients with chronic renal failure who may be suspected of primary or secondary porphyria. | Uroporphyrin, Heptacarboxyporphyrin, Hexacarboxyporphyrin, Pentacarboxyporphyrin, Coproporphyrin, Protoporphyrin, Total Porphyrins | |||||||||||||||
| 5555 | MMR Immunity Profile | Measles Ab, IgG, Mumps Ab, IgG, Rubella Ab IgG | |||||||||||||||||
| 5656 | Hypocalcemia Profile | To evaluate patients with indications of Hypocalcemia. | Intact PTH, Creatinine, Serum, Bun/Creat Ratio, Calcium, Serum, Phosphorus, Magnesium, Uric Acid, Vitamin D 25-OH | ||||||||||||||||
| 5669 | ETHYL GLUCURONIDE | 80307 If Confirmation Performed, Add 80321 | |||||||||||||||||
| 5738 | TBII (Thyrotropin-Binding Inhibitory Immunoglobulin) | 83519 | Measurement of TBII is used to diagnose and manage Graves' disease, neonatal hypothyroidism, and postpartum thyroid dysfunction. | ||||||||||||||||
| 5810 | Jo-1 Antibody | 86235 | Jo-1 Antibody occurs most frequently (31 percent) in patients with polymyositis, but has also been found in patients with dermatomyositis, and the polymyositis/scleroderma overlap syndrome (PM/SCL) or polymyositis/systemic lupus erythematosis overlap syndrome (PM/SLE). | ||||||||||||||||
| 5819 | Cancer Antigen 15-3 | 86300 | CA 15-3 may be useful for monitoring patients with metastatic breast cancer and certain ovarian cancers. The CA 15-3 values from sequential samples have a high correlation with the clinical course in most patients with metastatic breast cancer. | ||||||||||||||||
| 5924 | ETHANOL, URINE, QUAL | 80307 | |||||||||||||||||
| 6000 | Sedimentation Rate, ESR | 85652 | Useful in differentiating inflammatory and neoplastic diseases and as an index of disease severity. CRP is also useful in monitoring inflammatory disease states. | ||||||||||||||||
| 6002 | ANA Screen, IFA with Reflex to Titer/Pattern | 86038 | Antinuclear antibodies are associated with rheumatic diseases including Systemic Lupus Erythematous (SLE), mixed connective tissue disease, Sjogren's syndrome, scleroderma, polymyositis, CREST syndrome, and neurologic SLE. | If ANA Screen, IFA is positive, then ANA Titer and Pattern will be performed at an additional charge (CPT code(s): 86039). | |||||||||||||||
| 6004 | ANA Profile (11) | dsDNA Ab , Anti-SSA Ab, Anti-SSB Ab, Smith Ab, Sm RNP Ab, Ribosomal P Ab, Scl-70 Ab, Centromere B Ab, Jo-1 Ab, RNP Ab, Chromatin Ab | |||||||||||||||||
| 6006 | H pylori IgG Ab | 86677 | The qualitative determination of IgG antibodies to Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) in human serum from symptomatic adults as an aid in the diagnosis of H. pylori infection. | ||||||||||||||||
| 6015 | Urinalysis | 81003 | Important in accessing the chemical constituents in the urine and the relationship to various diseases. | pH, Specific gravity, Protein Negative, Glucose Negative, Appearance Clear, Leukocyte esterase, Color, Occult blood, Nitrite Bilirubin, Ketones, Reducing substances | |||||||||||||||
| 6017 | Urinalysis, with Reflex to Culture | 81003 | Microscopic examination helps to detect the presence of abnormal urine cells and formed elements. Culture may identify theorganism(s) causing infection. | Macroscopic Examinations If any of the following Urinalysis results are applicable, then a culture will be performed at an additional charge (CPT code(s): 87088, 87086). Presence of Leukocyte esterase alone Presence of WBCs (>5/hpf) alone Presence of Yeast Presence of Bacteria and the presence of WBCs (>5/hpf) or Leukocyte esterase Presence of Nitrite and the presence of WBCs (>5/hpf) or Leukocyte esterase | |||||||||||||||
| 6018 | Urinalysis, Complete, with Reflex to Culture | Dipstick urinalysis is important in accessing the chemical constituents in the urine and the relationship to various disease states. Microscopic examination helps to detect the presence of abnormal urine cells and formed elements. Culture may identify the organism(s) causing infection. | Macroscopic***** Presence of Nitrite and the presence of WBCs (>5/hpf) or Leukocyte esterase | ||||||||||||||||
| 6072 | Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR), Qualitative Test | 86592 | If this test is positive, RPR titer will be performed at an additional charge.Syphilis is a disease caused by infection with the spirochete Treponema pallidum. The infection is systemic and the disease is characterized by periods of latency. These features, together with the fact that T pallidum cannot be isolated in culture, mean that serologic techniques play a major role in the diagnosis and follow-up of treatment for syphilis.Patients with primary or secondary syphilis should be reexamined clinically and serologically 6 months and 12 months following treatment. Typically, rapid plasma reagin titers decrease following successful treatment, but this may occur over a period of months to years. | ||||||||||||||||
| 6073 | Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) with Reflex to Confirmatory Testing (TP-PA) | 86592 | WILL REFLEX TO RPR TITER AND TP-PA WHEN RESULT IS REACTIVE. Syphilis is a disease caused by infection with the spirochete Treponema pallidum. The infection is systemic and the disease is characterized by periods of latency. These features, together with the fact that T pallidum cannot be isolated in culture, mean that serologic techniques play a major role in the diagnosis and follow-up of treatment for syphilis. Patients with primary or secondary syphilis should be reexamined clinically and serologically 6 months and 12 months following treatment. Typically, rapid plasma reagin titers decrease following successful treatment, but this may occur over a period of months to years. | ||||||||||||||||
| 6085 | Chromium, Blood | 82495 | This assay is useful to monitor exposure to chromium, progress of medical treatment or determine nutritional status. | ||||||||||||||||
| 6090 | Complement C3, C4, Serum | 86160 | Decreased C3 and C4 levels may be associated with acute glomerulonephritis, membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, immune complex disease, active systemic lupus erythematosis, cryoglobulinemia, congenital C4 deficiency and generalized autoimmune disease. | ||||||||||||||||
| 6179 | Magnesium, Urine | 83735 | Assessing the cause of abnormal serum magnesium concentrations. Determining whether nutritional magnesium loads are adequate. Calculating urinary calcium oxalate and calcium phosphate supersaturation and assessing kidney stone risk. | ||||||||||||||||
| 6324 | Tin Total, Serum/Plasma | 83018 | Exposure Monitoring/Investigation.In the beverage industry QUANTOFIX™ Tin is used to control canned juices or food. Depending on the storage conditions and the quality of the tin plating, significant quantities of tin may get into the product, causing a negative aftertaste. The control of tin ensures the optimal quality of the food. | ||||||||||||||||
| 6354 | Zinc, RBC | 84630 | Zinc is an essential element involved in a myriad of enzyme systems including wound healing, immune function, and fetal development. Zinc measurements are used to detect and monitor industrial, dietary, and accidental exposure to zinc. Also, Zinc measurements may be used to evaluate health and monitor response to treatment. | ||||||||||||||||
| 6398 | Synovial Fluid Analysis, Complete | 83872, 89051, 89060 | Immunologic, mechanical, chemical or bacteriologic damage may alter the permeability of the membranes and capillaries of the joints to produce varying degrees of inflammatory response. Various disorders produce changes in the chemical constituents of the joint fluid and in the type of cell population present | Appearance, Color, Microscopic Cell Differential, Crystals, Mucin Clot | |||||||||||||||
| 6419 | Rickettsia (RMSF) Antibodies (IgG, IgM) with Reflex to Titers | 86757 | Antigen specific IgG and IgM titers allow rapid diagnosis of infection by any of the spotted fever group of rickettsial agents. This group of agents include R. rickettsii (Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever) and R. akari (rickettsial pox), both seen in the continental United States. | If Rickettsia (Typhus Fever) screen is detected, IgG or IgM, the appropriate Titer will be performed at an additional charge (CPT code(s) 86757 per titer performed) | |||||||||||||||
| 6421 | Epstein-Barr Virus Antibody Panel | 86664, 86665 | Primary infection by EBV causes infectious mononucleosis, usually a self-limiting disease in children and young adults. Infection with EBV can cause lymphoproliferative disorders including tumors. VCA-IgM is typically detectable at clinical presentation, then declines to undetectable levels within a month in young children and within 3 months in other individuals. VCA-IgG is typically detectable at clinical presentation, and persists for life. EBNA IgG typically appears during convalescence (3-4 months after clinical presentation) and remains detectable for life. | Epstein-Barr Virus VCA Antibody (IgM), Epstein-Barr Virus VCA Antibody (IgG), Epstein-Barr Virus Nuclear Antigen (EBNA) Antibody (IgG), EBV Interpretation Chart, EBV Early Antigen D Ab | |||||||||||||||
| 6426 | ThinPrepImaging + HPV HR + HPV Genotyping (16, 18, 45) | ||||||||||||||||||
| 6500 | Prothrombin Time (PT/INR) | 85610 | Screening assay to detect deficiencies of one or more coagulation factors (factors I, II, V, VII, X) Screening assay to detect coagulation inhibition Monitoring intensity of oral anticoagulant therapy when combined with INR reporting | ||||||||||||||||
| 6530 | Hepatitis B Surface Antibody | 86317 | Identifying previous exposure to hepatitis B virus. Determining adequate immunity from hepatitis B vaccination. | ||||||||||||||||
| 6634 | Allergen, Aureobasidium pullulans (m12) IgE | 86003 | A mold, which may result in allergy symptoms in sensitized individuals. Aureobasidium pullulans is a ubiquitous yeast-like fungus that can be found in different environments (e.g. soil, water, air and limestone). (3) It may occur as a naturally occurring epiphyte or endophyte of a wide range of plant species (e.g. apple, grape, cucumber, green beans, cabbage) without causing any symptoms of disease. It is most common in temperate zones, with numerous recordings from the British Isles and the USA, but is also found in Canada, Alaska, Antarctica, Europe and Russia. | ||||||||||||||||
| 6646 | Lyme Disease Ab with Reflex to Immunoblot (IgG, IgM) | 86618 | Lyme disease is caused by a bacterium borrelia burgdorferi and is transmitted by ticks. A screening test with high sensitivity is used as the first step in the CDC recommended algorithm. Immunoblot testing qualitatively examines, with high specificity, antibodies in a patient's specimen. Immunoblot testing is appropriate for confirming a detected screening result. | Lyme Disease Antibody IgG Lyme Disease Antibody IgMIf Lyme Disease Antibody Screen is ≥0.90, then Lyme Disease Antibodies (IgG, IgM), Immunoblot will be performed at an additional charge (CPT code(s): 86617 x2). | |||||||||||||||
| 6680 | Allergen, Curvularia lunata (m16) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Curvularia lunata Source material: Spores and mycelium There appears to be extensive cross-reactivity between Stemphylium and Curvularia and Alternata (3). Allergen Exposure: Curvularia is a facultative pathogen and may cause leaf spots and seedling blight. It is also seen on castor beans, cotton, rice, barley, wheat, and corn. | ||||||||||||||||
| 6732 | Cytomegalovirus Ab, IgG/IgM | 86644, 86645 | Intrauterine or congenital CMV infections occur in 0.5 to 2.2 percent of all live births. Symptomatic congenital infections usually occur in infants born to nonimmune mothers who have primary infections during pregnancy. Latency and reactivation of CMV influence the interpretation of serological results. A single positive CMV IgG result is and indication of present or past infection. The presence of CMV IgM suggests a recent CMV exposure but does not differentiate between primary infection and reactivation. | ||||||||||||||||
| 6734 | Hepatitis A Antibody, IgM | 86709 | IgM antibodies to Hepatitis A suggest a current, acute or recent Hepatitis A infection. | ||||||||||||||||
| 6770 | Allergen, Phoma betae (m13) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Phoma betae; synonym: Pleospora betae Source material: Spores and mycelium Family: Pleosporaceae Mold A mold, which may result in allergy symptoms in sensitized individuals. | ||||||||||||||||
| 6921 | Dexamethasone Suppression Test (DST) | 82533 | |||||||||||||||||
| 6981 | Autoimmune and Arthritis Profile | 86038 001 86160 001 86225 001 | Antibodies are proteins made by your immune system. They help your body recognize and fight infections. Antibodies normally target harmful substances, such as bacteria and viruses, by activating the immune system to get rid of them. Sometimes, however, antibodies mistakenly target your healthy cells and tissues. This is known as an autoimmune response. Antibodies that attack healthy proteins within the nucleus -the control center of your cells- are called antinuclear antibodies (ANA). When the body receives signals to attack itself, autoimmune diseases such as lupus, scleroderma, mixed connective tissue disease, autoimmune hepatitis, and others can occur. Symptoms vary by disease, but they may include rashes, swelling, arthritis, or fatigue. While it's normal to have some ANA, having too many of these proteins is a sign that there may be an active autoimmune disease, such as lupus. An ANA panel helps determine the level of ANA in your blood. You may have an autoimmune disorder if the level is high. However, conditions such as infections, cancer, and other medical problems can also result in a positive ANA test. | Rheumatoid Factor, CCP Antibody, IgG, Uric Acid, Anti-TPO, anti-DNA (DS) Ab, Anti-SS-A, Anti-SS-B, Smith, Antibodies, Ribosomal P, Anti-Scl-70, Centromere B Ab, Jo-1 Antibody, RNP Antibodies, Smith/RNP Ab, Chromatin (N) Ab, ANA Screen, ANA, IFA, ANA Pattern & Titer, Anticardiolipin IgA, Anticardiolipin IgG, Anticardiolipin IgM | |||||||||||||||
| 7022 | PTT, Activated | 85730 | Monitoring heparin therapy (unfractionated heparin) Screening for certain coagulation factor deficiencies Detection of coagulation inhibitors such as lupus anticoagulant, specific factor inhibitors, and nonspecific inhibitors | ||||||||||||||||
| 7066 | Vitamin D, 25-Hydroxy | 82306 | Measurement of serum 25-OH vitamin D concentrations provide a good index of circulating vitamin D activity in patients not suffering from renal disease. Lower than normal 25-OH vitamin D levels can result from a dietary deficiency, poor absorption of the vitamin or impaired metabolism of the sterol in the liver. A 25-OH vitamin D deficiency can lead to bone diseases such as rickets and osteomalacia. Above normal levels can lead to hypercalcemia | ||||||||||||||||
| 7068 | Vitamin D with reflex to PTH | 82306 | Total Vitamin D , with reflex to PTH in the present of vitamin D deficiancy . | ||||||||||||||||
| 7079 | Lupus Anticoagulant Evaluation with Reflex | 85613, 85730 | Lupus anticoagulants (LA) are members of a family of antibodies with phospholipid specificity. LA may be defined as an immunoglobulin, IgG or IgM or a mixture of both, that interferes with one or more of the in vitro phospholipid (PL) dependent tests of coagulation. These antibodies are not associated with a hemorrhagic diathesis, but rather have been linked to thrombotic events. In addition to thrombosis other clinical complications have been associated with the presence of LA. These include strokes, nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis, livedo reticularis and a variety of obstetrical complications such as intrauterine fetal death, recurrent spontaneous abortion, fetal growth retardation, early onset preeclampsia and chorea gravidarum. | PTT-LA(CPT code(s): 85670. If dRVVT is >45 seconds, dRVVT Confirmation will be performed at an additional charge (CPT code(s): 85597). If dRVVT Confirmation is positive, dRVVT 1:1 Mixing Study will be performed at an additional charge (CPT code(s): 85613) | |||||||||||||||
| 7080 | Thyroglobulin Antibodies | 86800 | As an adjunct in the diagnosis of autoimmune thyroid diseases: Hashimoto disease, postpartum thyroiditis, neonatal hypothyroidism, and Graves diseaseIdentification of potentially unreliable serum thyroglobulin measurements by immunoassay in the follow-up of patients with differentiated follicular-cell derived thyroid carcinomas (for this application order HTG2 / Thyroglobulin, Tumor Marker, Serum or HTGR / Thyroglobulin, Tumor Marker Reflex to LC-MS/MS or Immunoassay) | ||||||||||||||||
| 7083 | Immunoglobulins A/G/M, Qn, Ser | 82784 | |||||||||||||||||
| 7131 | Beryllium | 83018 | Exposure monitoring | ||||||||||||||||
| 7197 | Lymphocyte Subset Panel 1 | 86255 | Immunophenotypic analysis may assist in evaluating cellular immunocompetency in suspected cases of primary and secondary immunodeficiency states. | Absolute Lymphocytes, Absolute CD3, Percentage CD3, Absolute CD4, Percentage CD4, Absolute CD8, Percentage CD8, CD4/CD8 Ratio (calculated), Absolute CD16/56, Percentage CD16/56, Absolute CD19, Percentage CD19 | |||||||||||||||
| 7352 | Cardiolipin Antibodies (IgA, IgG, IgM) | 86147 (x3) | Cardiolipin antibodies (CA) are seen in a subgroup of patients with autoimmune disorders, particularly systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), who are at risk for vascular thrombosis, thrombocytopenia, cerebral infarct and/or recurrent spontaneous abortion. Elevations of CA associated with increased risk have also been seen in idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura, rheumatoid and psoriatic arthritis, and primary Sjogren's syndrome. Cardiolipin antibodies (CA) are seen in a subgroup of patients with autoimmune disorders, particularly systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), who are at risk for vascular thrombosis, thrombocytopenia, cerebral infarct and/or recurrent spontaneous abortion. Elevations of CA associated with increased risk have also been seen in idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura, rheumatoid and psoriatic arthritis, and primary Sjogren's syndrome. | Cardiolipin Antibody (IgA) Cardiolipin Antibody (IgG) Cardiolipin Antibody (IgM) | |||||||||||||||
| 7448 | Sm and Sm/RNP Antibodies | 86235 | Antibodies to Sm are highly specific for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and when present are considered a marker antibody. However, these antibodies are found in only 20 percent of patients with SLE.RNP antibodies (also known as anti-u1 or ribonucleoprotein antibodies) are found in 45 percent of SLE patients but are also observed in numerous other disease states such as Sjogren's syndrome, scleroderma and polymyositis. Elevated levels of antibodies to RNP are seen in mixed connective tissue disease. In SLE, RNP antibodies have been associated with a relatively benign disease course with lower incidence of renal and central nervous system involvement. Patients may be considered positive for RNP antibodies when the RNP antibody result is significantly higher than the Sm antibody result. | ||||||||||||||||
| 7550 | Myasthenia Gravis Panel I | 83519, 84999, 86255, 86256 | Useful in the diagnosis of Myasthenia Gravis | Anti-Striated Muscle Antibody Screen with Reflex; Acetylcholine Receptor Binding Antibody | |||||||||||||||
| 7655 | Heavy Metals Profile I, Blood | 82175, 83655, 83825 | Useful in the diagnosis of toxicity due to Arsenic, Lead or Mercury. | Arsenic, Lead, Mercury | |||||||||||||||
| 7656 | Coxsackie B (1-6) Antibodies, CSF | 86658 | Coxsackie Antibodies B1, B2, B3, B4, B5, B6 | ||||||||||||||||
| 7788 | ABO Group and Rh Type | 86900, 86901 | ABO type and Rh are needed to identify candidates for Rh immune globulin and to assess the risk of hemolytic disease of the newborn. | ||||||||||||||||
| 7832 | Sjogren's Ab, Anti-SS-A/-SS-B | 86235 | Sjogren's antibodies (SS-B) is detected in approximately 15% of patients with Sjogren's Syndrome. Sjogren's antibody (SS-B) is present only if Sjogren's antibody (SS-A) is also detected. The presence of both antibodies (SS-A and SS-B) strengthen the diagnosis of Sjogren's Syndrome and conveys prognostic information. | ||||||||||||||||
| 7903 | IgG Subclasses Panel | 82784, 82787 | IgG are the most common isotype of Ig and include four subclasses which differ from one another in the following ways: their initial amino acid sequence, their physical and chemical properties and the different serum concentrations reached with age. Every subclass has a specific biological function: the response to proteic antigens is prevalently mediated by IgG1 and IgG3, while IgG2 mediates the response to polysaccharide antigens. It is still unclear whether IgG4 are protective or sensitising antibodies; IgG1 and IgG3 also have a major ability to bind to the cells that mediate the immune response, while only IgG4 activate the complement using an alternative route. Although low levels of IgG subclasses may be temporary, deficiencies are often associated with various diseases: 1) recidivating bacterial infections involving the respiratory and digestive tracts, primarily sustained by capsulated or pyogenic microorganisms; 2) IgA deficiency; 3) absence of immune response following vaccination; 4) allergic or autoimmune diseases; 5) diseases of the CNS. IgG subclass deficiencies must therefore be looked for every time these diseases are diagnosed, also because subjects may benefit from gammaglobulin replacement therapy Iinculdes : Subclasses 1,2,3,4 and Total IgG. | ||||||||||||||||
| 7924 | CD4/CD8 Lymphocytes Enumeration | 86360 | Assists in evaluating helper and suppressor cell immune status in immunodeficiency diseases such as AIDS. | Absolute Lymphocytes, Percentage CD4, Absolute CD4, Percentage CD8, Absolute CD8, CD4/CD8 Ratio (calculated) | |||||||||||||||
| 8000 | Hepatitis B Core Antibody, IgM | 86705 | Hepatitis B core-specific IgM class antibody has been detected in most acute infections and is a reliable marker for acute disease. In some cases, hepatitis B core IgM antibody may be the only specific marker for the diagnosis of acute infection with hepatitis B virus. | ||||||||||||||||
| 8005 | Hepatitis C Virus (HCV) Antibody | 86803 | Useful in monitoring therapy and/or disease progression. Reportable range is 15 to 100,000,000 IU/mL (1.18-8.00 Log IU/mL). | ||||||||||||||||
| 8010 | Microalb/Creat Ratio, Randm Ur | 82043, 82570 | AssessingMinimum volume collection does not allow for repeat testing | ||||||||||||||||
| 8035 | Creatinine, 24-Hour Urine | 82570 | Creatinine is the endproduct of creatine metabolism. Creatine is present primarily in muscle and the amount of creatinine produced is related to total skeletal muscle mass. Daily creatinine production is fairly constant except when there is massive injury to muscle. The kidneys excrete creatinine very efficiently and blood levels and daily urinary excretion of creatinine fluctuates very little in healthy normal people. Since blood and daily urine excretion of creatinine shows minimal fluctuation, creatinine excretion is useful in determining whether 24-hour urine specimens for other analytes (e.g., protein) have been completely and accurately collected. | ||||||||||||||||
| 8036 | DHEA-Sulfate | 82627 | Diagnosis and differential diagnosis of hyperandrogenism (in conjunction with measurements of other sex steroids)An adjunct in the diagnosis of congenital adrenal hyperplasia. Diagnosis and differential diagnosis of premature adrenarche. Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) is the principal human C-19 steroid. DHEA has very low androgenic potency, but serves as the major direct or indirect precursor for most sex steroids. DHEA is secreted by the adrenal gland and production is at least partly controlled by adrenocorticotropic hormone. The bulk of DHEA is secreted as a 3-sulfoconjugate (DHEA-S). Both hormones are albumin bound, but binding of DHEA-S is much tighter. In gonads and several other tissues, most notably skin, steroid sulfatases can convert DHEA-S back to DHEA, which can then be metabolized to stronger androgens and to estrogens. | ||||||||||||||||
| 8061 | Catecholamines, Fractionated and VMA, 24-Hour Urine without Creatinine | 82384, 84585 | The three catecholamines (norepinephrine, epinephrine and dopamine) are the principal secretory products of neural tissue. Clinically, the measurement of circulating catecholamines is valuable in the diagnosis of catecholamine secreting tumors associated chiefly with hypertension (pheochromocytomas, neuroblastomas and gangliomas) and with the evaluation of orthostatic hypotension. | Dopamine, Epinephrine, Norepinephrine, Total Catecholamines (calculated), VMA | |||||||||||||||
| 8066 | Osmolality, Serum | 83930 | Osmolality is a measure of the number of dissolved solute particles in solution.It is determined by the number and not by the nature of the particles in solution.Dissolved solutes change the physical properties of solutions, increasing the osmotic pressure and boiling point and decreasing the vapor pressure and freezing point.The osmolality of serum increases with dehydration and decreases with overhydration. The patient receiving intravenous fluids should have a normal osmolality. If the osmolality rises, the fluids contain relatively more electrolytes than water. If the osmolality falls, relatively more water than electrolytes is being administered.Normally, the ratio of serum sodium, in mEq/L, to serum osmolality, in mOsm/kg, is between 0.43 and 0.5. The ratio may be distorted in drug toxication.Generally, the same conditions that decrease or increase the serum sodium concentration affect the osmolality.A comparison of measured and calculated serum osmolality produces a delta-osmolality. If this is >40 mOsm/kg a H2O in a critically ill patient, the prognosis is poor. | ||||||||||||||||
| 8068 | Protein Total, Qn, 24-Hr Urine | 84156 | Protein in urine is normally composed of a combination of plasma-derived proteins that have been filtered by glomeruli and have not been reabsorbed by the proximal tubules and proteins secreted by renal tubules or other accessory glands.Increased amounts of protein in the urine may be due to: -Glomerular proteinuria: caused by defects in permselectivity of the glomerular filtration barrier to plasma proteins (eg,glomerulonephritis or nephrotic syndrome)-Tubular proteinuria: caused by incomplete tubular reabsorption of proteins (eg, interstitial nephritis)-Overflow proteinuria: caused by increased plasma concentration of proteins (eg, multiple myeloma, myoglobinuria)-Urinary tract inflammation or tumor | ||||||||||||||||
| 8071 | Protein, Total, Urine | 84156 | Protein in urine is normally composed of a combination of plasma-derived proteins that have been filtered by glomeruli and have not been reabsorbed by the proximal tubules and proteins secreted by renal tubules or other accessory glands.Increased amounts of protein in the urine may be due to: -Glomerular proteinuria: caused by defects in permselectivity of the glomerular filtration barrier to plasma proteins (eg,glomerulonephritis or nephrotic syndrome)-Tubular proteinuria: caused by incomplete tubular reabsorption of proteins (eg, interstitial nephritis)-Overflow proteinuria: caused by increased plasma concentration of proteins (eg, multiple myeloma, myoglobinuria)-Urinary tract inflammation or tumor | ||||||||||||||||
| 8077 | Osmolality, Urine | 83935 | If 24-hour urine is collected, record total urine volume on the request form. | ||||||||||||||||
| 8084 | Varicella-Zoster V Ab, IgG | 86787 | Determination of immune status of individuals to the varicella-zoster virus (VZV)Varicella-zoster virus (VZV), a herpes virus, causes 2 exanthematous (rash-associated) diseases, chickenpox and herpes zoster (shingles). Chickenpox is a highly contagious disease usually contracted during childhood and is characterized by a dermal vesiculopustular rash that develops in successive crops. Although primary infection results in immunity to subsequent exposure to chickenpox, the virus remains latent in the body, localized to the dorsal root or cranial nerve ganglia. Reactivation of latent infection manifests as herpes zoster. On reactivation, the virus migrates along neural pathways to the skin, producing a unilateral rash usually limited to a single dermatome. Reactivation occurs in older adults and in patients with impaired cellular immunity. | ||||||||||||||||
| 8086 | Hepatitis B Surface Antigen | 86706 | Surface antigen usually appears in the serum after an incubation period of 1 to 6 months following exposure to Hepatitis B virus and peaks shortly after onset of symptoms. It typically disappears within 1 to 3 months. Persistence of Hepatitis B surface antigen for greater than 6 months is a prognostic indicator of chronic Hepatitis B infection. | ||||||||||||||||
| 8088 | Rubella Antibodies, IgG | 86762 | Determination of immune status to the rubella virus | ||||||||||||||||
| 8104 | Creatinine, Random Urine | 82570 | Creatinine is the endproduct of creatine metabolism. Creatine is present primarily in muscle and the amount of creatinine produced is related to total skeletal muscle mass. Daily creatinine production is fairly constant except when there is massive injury to muscle. The kidneys excrete creatinine very efficiently and blood levels and daily urinary excretion of creatinine fluctuates very little in healthy normal people. Since blood and daily urine excretion of creatinine shows minimal fluctuation, creatinine excretion is useful in determining whether 24-hour urine specimens for other analytes (e.g., protein) have been completely and accurately collected. | ||||||||||||||||
| 8112 | Mononucleosis Test, Qual | 86308 | Mononucleosis tests are blood tests to look for antibodies that indicate mononucleosis (mono), which is usually caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). The antibodies are made by the immune system to fight an infection. | ||||||||||||||||
| 8124 | Testosterone, Free, Serum | 84402 | Evaluate hirsutism and masculinization in women; evaluate testicular function in clinical states where the testosterone binding proteins may be altered (obesity, cirrhosis, thyroid disorders) | ||||||||||||||||
| 8129 | Testosterone, Bioavailable | ||||||||||||||||||
| 8220 | Anti-Centromere B Antibodies | 86038 | Centromere B Antibody is diagnostic for the form of scleroderma known as CREST (calcinosis, Raynaud's phenomenon, esophageal immotility, sclerodactyly, and telangiectasia). | ||||||||||||||||
| 8328 | Protein Creatinine Ratio, Random Urine | 82570 ,84156 | Protein in urine is normally composed of a combination of plasma-derived proteins that have been filtered by glomeruli and have not been reabsorbed by the proximal tubules and proteins secreted by renal tubules or other accessory glands.Increased amounts of protein in the urine may be due to: -Glomerular proteinuria: caused by defects in permselectivity of the glomerular filtration barrier to plasma proteins (eg,glomerulonephritis or nephrotic syndrome)-Tubular proteinuria: caused by incomplete tubular reabsorption of proteins (eg, interstitial nephritis)-Overflow proteinuria: caused by increased plasma concentration of proteins (eg, multiple myeloma, myoglobinuria) | ||||||||||||||||
| 8338 | Transferrin | 84466 | Transferrin is a direct measure of the iron binding capacity. Transferrin is thus useful in assessing iron balance. Iron deficiency and overload are often evaluated with complementary laboratory tests | ||||||||||||||||
| 8339 | Transferrin Saturation | The transferrin saturation is a function of the circulating plasma iron in relation to the total iron-binding capacity and is often regarded as a better measure of available iron | |||||||||||||||||
| 8340 | Fructosamine | 82985 | The fructosamine assay is useful in monitoring the degree of glycemia over short-to-intermediate time frames (1-3 weeks). A fructosamine concentration greater than the established normal range is an indication of prolonged hyperglycemia of 1-3 weeks or longer. The higher the fructosamine value, the poorer the degree of glycemia control. | ||||||||||||||||
| 8352 | 17 Hydroxypregnenolone, LC/MS/MS | 84143 | 17-Hydroxypregnenolone is useful in the diagnosis of 3-Beta-Hydroxylase enzyme deficiency, a rare cause of congenital adrenal hyperplasia, and 17-Hydroxylase (P450c17) enzyme deficiency. | ||||||||||||||||
| 8369 | Hepatitis B Virus DNA, Quantitative,PCR | 87517 | Chronic carriers will persist in producing detectable HBV. Patients with chronic liver disease of unknown origin most commonly have HBV that is detected by viral DNA testing. Quantitative measurement of HBV viral DNA may be used to monitor progression of disease. | ||||||||||||||||
| 8400 | ACTH, Plasma | 82024 | Determination of ACTH is useful in differentiating between primary and secondary adrenocortical hypo- and hyperfunctional disorders: Addison's disease, Cushing's syndrome, adrenal carcinoma, ectopic ACTH syndrome, and adrenal nodular hyperplasia. | ||||||||||||||||
| 8401 | ACTH Stimulation Baseline | 82024 | Determination of ACTH is useful in differentiating between primary and secondary adrenocortical hypo- and hyperfunctional disorders: Addison's disease, Cushing's syndrome, adrenal carcinoma, ectopic ACTH syndrome, and adrenal nodular hyperplasia. | Includes Cortisol Baseline, 30 minutes post ACTH administration and 60 minutes post ACTH administration need to order separate tests | |||||||||||||||
| 8402 | ACTH Stimulation 30 min | 82024 | Determination of ACTH is useful in differentiating between primary and secondary adrenocortical hypo- and hyperfunctional disorders: Addison's disease, Cushing's syndrome, adrenal carcinoma, ectopic ACTH syndrome, and adrenal nodular hyperplasia. | Includes Cortisol 30 minutes post ACTH administration | |||||||||||||||
| 8403 | ACTH Stimulation 60 min | 82024 | Determination of ACTH is useful in differentiating between primary and secondary adrenocortical hypo- and hyperfunctional disorders: Addison's disease, Cushing's syndrome, adrenal carcinoma, ectopic ACTH syndrome, and adrenal nodular hyperplasia. | Includes Cortisol 60 minutes post ACTH administration | |||||||||||||||
| 8464 | Amylase, Random Urine with Creatinine | 82150, 82570 | Urinary amylase is useful in the consideration of macroamylasemia and pseudocyst of the pancreas. With macroamylasemia, only the serum concentration is elevated. With pseudocysts, the urinary concentration remains elevated for weeks after an episode of acute pancreatitis. | ||||||||||||||||
| 8472 | Hepatitis C Antibody with Reflex to HCV, RNA, Quantitative, Real-Time PCR | 86803 | |||||||||||||||||
| 8500 | Prenatal Profile I | Multi | Evaluate woman's health status in early pregnancy; evaluate for anemia, leukemia, reaction to inflammation and infections, peripheral blood cellular characteristics, state of hydration and dehydration, polycythemia, hemolytic disease of the newborn, and ABO incompatibilities | ABO grouping and Rh typing; antibody screen (includes ID and titer of all irregular antibodies detected); CBC with differential; Hepatis Panel ; rubella antibodies, IgG; syphilis serology (if positive, confirmation is performed by TP-PA at an additional charge); HIV screen | |||||||||||||||
| 8503 | Cytomegalovirus Ab, IgM | 86645 | CMV infections are common and usually asymptomatic. In patients who are immunocompromised, CMV may cause disseminated, severe disease. CMV may cause birth defects in a minority of infected newborns. | ||||||||||||||||
| 8510 | Mumps Antibodies, IgG | 86735 | Mumps is an acute, usually self-limited systemic illness characterized by parotiditis, high fever and fatigue. One third of infections are asymptomatic | ||||||||||||||||
| 8512 | Measles (Rubeola) IgG | 86735 | Measles, also known as rubeola, causes fever, irritability, respiratory illness, and the characteristic skin rash. Immunization has greatly diminished the incidence of measles. The presence of IgG is consistent with immunity or prior exposure. IgM is consistent with current or recent infection. IgM tests can generate false positive results and low levels of IgM can persist for longer than 12 months. | ||||||||||||||||
| 8525 | UPEP24 Hour Urine | 82570, 84156, 84166 | Evaluate myeloma, macroglobulinemia of Waldenstrom, lymphoma, amyloidosis; differentiate between normal renal function, glomerular proteinuria, and tubular proteinuria. Increased glomerular permeability leads to higher concentrations of large proteins in the glomerular filtrate. Diminished tubular reabsorptive capacity results in a marked increase in urinary excretion of low molecular weight problems. | Total Protein, Protein Electrophoresis, Creatinine | |||||||||||||||
| 8531 | Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) 1 (IgG), Type-Specific Antibody | 86695 | Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) is responsible for several clinically significant human viral diseases, with severity ranging from inapparent to fatal. Clinical manifestations include genital tract infections, neonatal herpes, meningoencephalitis, keratoconjunctivitis, and gingivostomatitis. There are two HSV serotypes that are closely related antigenically. HSV type 2 is more commonly associated with genital tract and neonatal infections, while HSV type 1 is more commonly associated with infections of non-genital sites. Specific typing is not usually required for diagnosis or treatment. The mean time to seroconversion using the type specific assay is 25 days. The performance of this assay has not been established for use in a pediatric population, for neonatal screening, or for testing of immunocompromised patients. | ||||||||||||||||
| 8532 | Herpes Simplex VirusType 2-Specific Ab, IgG | 86696 | Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) is responsible for several clinically significant human viral diseases, with severity ranging from inapparent to fatal. Clinical manifestations include genital tract infections, neonatal herpes, meningoencephalitis, keratoconjunctivitis, and gingivostomatitis. There are two HSV serotypes that are closely related antigenically. HSV type 2 is more commonly associated with genital tract and neonatal infections, while HSV type 1 is more commonly associated with infections of non-genital sites. Specific typing is not usually required for diagnosis or treatment. The mean time to seroconversion using the type specific assay is 25 days. The performance of this assay has not been established for use in a pediatric population, for neonatal screening, or for testing of immunocompromised patients. | ||||||||||||||||
| 8559 | Eosinophil Count, Urine | 85999 | The presence of eosinophils has been noted in pyelonephritis, transplant rejection and drug-induced acute interstitial cystitis. | ||||||||||||||||
| 8578 | Glucose Tolerance Screen, Gestational, 1 Hr, 2 Specimens (50 g) | 86415 | This test is used for the screening of diabetes mellitus in pregnant female patients. | ||||||||||||||||
| 8588 | Microalbumin, 24 hr Urine | 82043 | Microalbumin is albumin excreted in the urine and is a sensitive marker of nephropathy. It is used to screen for early renal diseases in diabetic patients | ||||||||||||||||
| 8590 | Glucose Tolerance Test (GTT), Gestational, 3 Hr, 4 Specimens (100g) | This test is used for the routine diagnosis of diabetes mellitus in pregnant female patients. | |||||||||||||||||
| 8591 | Glucose Tolerance Test, Gestational, 2 Hr, 3 Specimens (75g) | This test is used for the diagnosis of gestational diabetes. | |||||||||||||||||
| 8593 | Lyme Disease Antibodies (IgG, IgM), Immunoblot | 86617 times 2 | Lyme Disease Antibodies (IgG, IgM), Immunoblot - Lyme disease is transmitted by a tick vector carrying Borrelia burgdorferi. Immunoblot testing qualitatively examines, with high specificity, antibodies in a patient's specimen. Immunoblot testing is appropriate for confirming a detected EIA or IFA test result. | ||||||||||||||||
| 8612 | Deamidated Gliadin Abs, IgA | ||||||||||||||||||
| 8614 | Deamidated Gliadin Abs, IgG | 83516 | Evaluating patients suspected of having celiac disease; this includes patients with symptoms compatible with celiac disease, patients with atypical symptoms, and individuals at increased risk of celiac disease. | ||||||||||||||||
| 8616 | t-Transglutaminase (tTG) IgA | Evaluating patients suspected of having celiac disease, including patients with compatible clinical symptoms, patients with atypical symptoms, and individuals at increased risk (family history, previous diagnosis with associated disorder, positivity for HLA DQ2 and/or DQ8)Screening test for dermatitis herpetiformis, in conjunction with endomysial antibody testMonitoring adherence to gluten-free diet in patients with dermatitis herpetiformis and celiac disease | |||||||||||||||||
| 8618 | t-Transglutaminase (tTG) IgG | 83516 | Evaluating patients suspected of having celiac disease, including patients with compatible clinical symptoms, patients with atypical symptoms, and individuals at increased risk (family history, previous diagnosis with associated disease, positivity for HLA DQ2 and/or DQ8) Monitoring adherence to gluten-free diet in patients with dermatitis herpetiformis and celiac disease | ||||||||||||||||
| 8630 | Creatinine Clearance, 24 Hr Ur | 82575 | Creatinine Clearance is used to evaluate the glomerular filtration rate (GFR). Clearance is defined as that volume of plasma from which a measured amount of substance could be completely eliminated into the urine per unit of time. Daily creatinine production is fairly constant except when there is massive injury to muscle. | Creatinine (serum and urine), Creatinine Clearance (calculation), eGFR | |||||||||||||||
| 8633 | Iron Saturation | Percent saturation (100 x serum iron/TIBC) is usually normal or decreased in persons who are iron deficient, pregnant, or are taking oral contraceptive medications. Persons with chronic inflammatory processes, hemochromatosis, or malignancies generally display low transferrin. Serum iron, total iron-binding capacity, and percent saturation are widely used for the diagnosis of iron deficiency. However, serum ferritin is a much more sensitive and reliable test for demonstration of iron deficiency. | |||||||||||||||||
| 8636 | Toxoplasma Abs IgG/IgM | 86777, 86778 | Toxoplasmosis is a parasitic infection caused by the protozoan Toxoplasma gondii. Approximately 23 percent of the immunocompetent population are asymptomatic carriers of the parasite. The combination of high titers of IgG and IgM antibodies to Toxoplasma gondii is consistent with infection in the last three months. High titers of IgG and low to medium titers of IgM antibodies to Toxoplasma gondii are consistent with infection in the last three to six months | ||||||||||||||||
| 8650 | Drug Monitoring, 12 Panel Urine Drug Screen | 80307 | Toxicology screen isused to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. Drug screen results may need to be confirmed with LCMS. | Creatinine (Urine Screen), Urine PH Screen, Urine Specific Gravity S, Amphetamines (AMP), Benzodiazepines (BZO), Cocaine (COC), Methadone (MTD), Opiates (OPI), Oxycodone (OXY), Phencyclidine (PCP), Cannabinoid (THC), Methamphetamine (MAMP), Buprenorphine (BUP), and Ecstasy (MDMA). | |||||||||||||||
| 8658 | Alpha Subunit | 82397 | This assay is useful in the diagnosis and management of various pituitary, placental, pancreatic and hCG-producing tumors. The assay can also be useful for investigations where alpha subunit is increased under various physiological stimuli, e.g., GnRH stimulation and TRH stimulation tests. | This test measures the alpha subunit that is common to LH, FSH, TSH and hCG. These hormones are comprised of identical alpha subunits and unique beta subunits that confer biological specificity. | |||||||||||||||
| 8660 | Immunoglobulins A/E/G/M/D, Serum | 82784, 82785 | |||||||||||||||||
| 8664 | Immunoglobulin A, Qn, Serum | 82784 | The gamma globulin band as seen in conventional serum protein electrophoresis consists of 5 immunoglobulins. In normal serum, about 15 percent is immunoglobulin A (IgA). Monoclonal gammopathies of all types may lead to a spike in the gamma globulin zone seen on serum protein electrophoresis. Monoclonal elevations of IgA characterize multiple myeloma. Decreased immunoglobulin levels are found in patients with congenital deficiencies. | ||||||||||||||||
| 8683 | Varicella-Zoster Ab, IgM | 86787 | Diagnosing acute-phase infection with varicella-zoster virusVaricella-zoster virus (VZV), a herpes virus, causes 2 exanthematous (rash-associated) diseases, chickenpox and herpes zoster (shingles). Chickenpox is a highly contagious disease usually contracted during childhood and is characterized by a dermal vesiculopustular rash that develops in successive crops. Although primary infection results in immunity to subsequent exposure to chickenpox, the virus remains latent in the body, localized to the dorsal root or cranial nerve ganglia. Reactivation of latent infection manifests as herpes zoster. On reactivation, the virus migrates along neural pathways to the skin, producing a unilateral rash usually limited to a single dermatome. Reactivation occurs in older adults and in patients with impaired cellular immunity. | ||||||||||||||||
| 8757 | Protein C Activity and Antigen | 85302, 85303 | Comprehensive test assesses the total level of protein and its functional activity in determining Protein C deficiency, which is strongly prothrombotic, and may require long-term anticoagulation therapy. In the presence of low Protein C Activity, Protein C Antigen helps to confirm and to classify Protein C Deficiency as Type I or Type II. Protein C is a highly thrombophilic protein | ||||||||||||||||
| 8812 | Cyclosporine A Trough, Blood | 80158 | Cyclosporine is a commonly used immunosuppressive drug in patients receiving transplants. LC/MS/MS methods have higher specificity for the parent compound than immunoassay. Therapeutic drug monitoring is useful to optimize dose and avoid toxicity. High cyclosporine levels can lead to nephrotoxicity. Low levels can lead to organ rejection following transplant. Peak concentrations are reached at around 3.5 hours after oral dosage. Elimination half-life is 10-27 hours. | ||||||||||||||||
| 8830 | Thallium | 83018 | |||||||||||||||||
| 8856 | Legionella Antigen, EIA, Urine | 87449 | Legionella urinary antigen is useful in conjunction with other laboratory tests in the diagnosis of Legionnaire's Disease. Legionella urinary antigen may be identified for months after recovery. | ||||||||||||||||
| 8884 | Allergen, Pear (f94) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Pyrus communis Source material: Peel from fresh fruit Family: Rosaceae Food A food, which may result in allergy symptoms in sensitized individuals. | ||||||||||||||||
| 8892 | Wet Prep and KOH | 87210 | Clue cell exam; Trichomonas exam; yeast exam | Clue cell exam; Trichomonas exam; yeast exam | |||||||||||||||
| 8928 | Allergen, Avocado (f96) IgE | 86003 | Common names: Avocado, Alligator pear, Midshipman's butter, Vegetable butter, Butter pear Varieties: Guatemalan: Persea nubigena var. guatamalensis L. Wms., Mexican: P. americana var. drymifolia Blake West, Indian: P. americana Mill. var. americana (P. gratissima Gaertn.) | ||||||||||||||||
| 8931 | Allergen, Mushroom (f212) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Agaricus hortensis/Agaricus bisporus Family: Agaricaceae Common Names: Mushroom, Champignon mushroom, Button mushroom, Table mushroom, White mushroom, Common mushroom, Cultivated mushroom. Agaricus hortensis is a near-synonym, applied to pure white forms of Agaricus bisporus. Agaricus brunnescens, referring to 'brownish' forms, is a former name and also a near-synonym. | ||||||||||||||||
| 8946 | Parvovirus B19, Human, IgG/IgM | 86747 | Parvovirus B19 is also known as Fifth Disease. It primarily affects children and causes a rash on the face, trunk, and limbs. Joint pain and swelling is more common in adults. Although one-fifth of those affected have only mild disease, patients with sickle cell anemia or similar types of chronic anemia can suffer from acute anemia. Infection during pregnancy can lead to complications. | ||||||||||||||||
| 9060 | T3 Uptake | 84479 | Decreased: Pregnancy, estrogens, hyperproteinemia, acute intermittent porphyria.Increased: Androgens, hyperproteinemia, stress, acute liver disease.This assay is a measure of available thyroid hormone binding sites and should be interpreted with thyroxine levels. | ||||||||||||||||
| 9110 | Lyme IgG/IgM Ab | 86618 | Lyme disease is caused by a bacterium borrelia burgdorferi and is transmitted by ticks. A screening test with high sensitivity is used as the first step in the CDC recommended algorithm. | Lyme Disease Antibody IgG Lyme Disease Antibody IgM | |||||||||||||||
| 9142 | 83876 | Myeloperoxidase testing may be used for individuals with multiple risk factors for cardiovascular disease, or those withestablished disease. | |||||||||||||||||
| 9254 | Sodium, 24 hr Urine | 84300 | Assessing acid-base balance, water balance, water intoxication, and dehydration.The excretion of sodium varies with dietary intake. There is a diurnal variation of sodium excretion with excretion being greater during daytime than during the night. Decreased levels are seen in congestive heart failure, excessive sweating, diarrhea, pyloric obstruction, malabsorption and primary aldosteronism. Increased levels may be due to increased salt intake, failure of the adrenal glands, diabetic acidosis, salt losing renal disease, diuretic therapy and water deprivation dehydration. | ||||||||||||||||
| 9280 | Sex Horm Binding Glob, Serum (SHBG) | 84403 | Diagnosis and follow-up of women with symptoms or signs of androgen excess (eg, polycystic ovarian syndrome and idiopathic hirsutism)In laboratories without access to bioavailable testosterone or equilibrium dialysis-based true free testosterone assays, sex hormone-binding globulin measurement is crucial in cases when assessment of the free testosterone fraction (aka free androgen index or calculated free testosterone) is required. At Mayo Medical Laboratories, both bioavailable testosterone (TTBS / Testosterone, Total and Bioavailable, Serum) and free testosterone (TGRP / Testosterone, Total and Free, Serum) measurements are available. Free testosterone (TGRP) is measured by equilibrium dialysis, obviating the need for sex hormone-binding globulin measurements to calculate free androgen fractions. | ||||||||||||||||
| 9296 | Morphine | 83925 | |||||||||||||||||
| 9304 | Vancomycin Trough, Serum | 80202 | Vancomycin is an antibiotic used in the treatment of bacterial infections, especially methicillin-resistant staphylococci.Vancomycin is also used in treatment for penicillin-allergic patients who cannot receive or have failed to respond to other drugs,including the penicillins and/or cephalosporins and for other infections caused by vancomycin-susceptible organisms. | ||||||||||||||||
| 9306 | Vancomycin Peak | 80202 | Vancomycin is an antibiotic used in the treatment of bacterial infections, especially methicillin-resistant staphylococci. Vancomycin is also used in treatment for penicillin-allergic patients who cannot receive or have failed to respond to other drugs, including the penicillins and/or cephalosporins and for other infections caused by vancomycin-susceptible organisms. | ||||||||||||||||
| 9338 | Allergen, Oat, (f7) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Avena sativa Source material: Untreated planting seeds Family: Graminae (Poaceae) Common Names: Oats, Oat, Oatmeal, Oat groats | ||||||||||||||||
| 9340 | Allergen, Haddock (f42) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Melanogrammus aeglefinus Source material: Whole fish Family: Gadidae | ||||||||||||||||
| 9450 | Occult Blood, Fecal, IA | 82274 | Qualitative detection of fecal occult blood | ||||||||||||||||
| 9482 | Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV) IgM | 86663 | Presence of VCA IgM antibodies indicates recent primary infection with Epstein-Barr virus. | ||||||||||||||||
| 9512 | Epstein-Barr Virus Early Antigen D Antibody (IgG) | 86663 | A third-order test in the diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis, especially in situations when initial testing results (heterophile antibody test) are negative and follow-up testing (viral capsid antigen: VCA IgG, VCA IgM, and Epstein-Barr nuclear antigen) yields inconclusive results aiding in the diagnosis of type 2 or type 3 nasopharyngeal carcinoma. | ||||||||||||||||
| 9514 | Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV) IgG | ||||||||||||||||||
| 9516 | Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV) Nuclear Antigen Ab, IgG | Primary infection by EBV causes infectious mononucleosis, usually a self-limiting disease in children and young adults. Infection with EBV can cause lymphoproliferative disorders including tumors. EBNA IgG typically appears during convalescence (3-4 months after clinical presentation) and remains detectable for life. VCA-IgM positivity in the absence of EBNA IgG suggests recent, active infection. | |||||||||||||||||
| 9600 | Sodium, Urine | Assessing acid-base balance, water balance, water intoxication, and dehydration.The excretion of sodium varies with dietary intake. There is a diurnal variation of sodium excretion with excretion being greater during daytime than during the night. Decreased levels are seen in congestive heart failure, excessive sweating, diarrhea, pyloric obstruction, alabsorption and primary aldosteronism. Increased levels may be due to increased salt intake, failure of the adrenal glands, diabetic acidosis, salt losing renal disease, diuretic therapy and water deprivation dehydration. | |||||||||||||||||
| 9652 | Drug Screen Panel 11, Urine | The Drug Screen Panel 11 is a qualitative test for the detection of multiple drugs and drug metabolites in urine. | Creatinine (MET), Phencyclidine (PCP), Cocaine (COC), Ecstasy (MDMA), Oxycodone (OXY), and Opiates (OPI). | ||||||||||||||||
| 9654 | Urine Drug Screen w/o THC | Creatinine (Urine Screen), Urine PH Screen, Urine Specific Gravity S, Amphetamines (AMP), Methadone (MTD), Benzodiazepines (BZO), Tricyclic Antidepressants (TCA), Methamphetamine (MET), Phencyclidine (PCP), Cocaine (COC), Ecstasy (MDMA), Oxycodone (OXY), and Opiates (OPI). | |||||||||||||||||
| 9696 | PDM, Opiates Screen | ||||||||||||||||||
| 9804 | Influenza A/B / RSV Panel PCR | 87631 | This assay is a rapid qualitative in vitro diagnostic test for the detection and differentiation of influenza A , influenza B, hMPV and RSV viral RNA in nasal and nasopharyngeal swabs from patients with signs and symptoms of respiratory infection. The assay amplifies and detects viral RNA present in transport media containing nasopharyngeal or nasal swab specimens obtained from symptomatic patients. | Influenza A PCR Influenza B PCRRSV PCRhMPV RNA PCR | |||||||||||||||
| 9830 | Chloride, Urine | 82436, 82570 | Urine chloride excretion approximates the dietary intake. The chloride content of most foods parallel that of sodium. An increasein urine chloride may result from water deficient dehydration, diabetic acidosis, Addison's disease, and salt-losing renal disease. Decreased urine levels are seen in congestive heart failure, severe diaphoresis and in hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis due toprolonged vomiting. | ||||||||||||||||
| 9894 | Allergen, Banana, (f92) IgE | 86003 | A food, which may result in allergy symptoms in sensitized individuals. Allergen Exposure: Banana is the common name for a fruit, and also for the herbaceous plants of the genus Musa that produce this popular fruit. Banana plants are of the family Musaceae. They are cultivated primarily for their fruit, and to a lesser extent for the production of fibre and as ornamental plants. | ||||||||||||||||
| 9916 | Myeloperoxidase Antibody (MPO) | 86021 | Evaluating patients suspected of having Wegener granulomatosis (WG) Distinguishing between WG and other forms of vasculitis, in conjunction with MPO / Myeloperoxidase Antibodies, IgG, Serum and ANCA / Cytoplasmic Neutrophil Antibodies, Serum (may be obtained as VASC / Antineutrophil Cytoplasmic Antibodies Vasculitis Panel, Serum) May be useful to follow treatment response or to monitor disease activity in patients with myeloperoxidase antibodies | ||||||||||||||||
| 9917 | Glomerular Basement Mmbrane (GBM) IgG | 83520 | Glomerular Basement Membrane Antibody is present in one fourth of patients with Goodpasture's syndrome. This syndrome consists of glomerulonephritis and pulmonary hemorrhage. | ||||||||||||||||
| 9918 | Antiproteinase 3 (PR3) Abs | 86021 | Evaluating patients suspected of having Wegener granulomatosis (WG) Distinguishing between WG and other forms of vasculitis, in conjunction with MPO/Myeloperoxidase Antibodies, IgG, Serum and ANCA/Cytoplasmic Neutrophil Antibodies, Serum (may be obtained as VASC/Antineutrophil Cytoplasmic Antibodies Vasculitis Panel, Serum) May be useful to follow treatment response or to monitor disease activity in patients with myeloperoxidase antibodies. | ||||||||||||||||
| 9944 | Allergen, Clam, F207, IgE | Latin name: Clam Source material: Fresh frozen muscle Family: Veneridae Clam is closely related to quahogs and cockles. Allergen Exposure: Cooked, often in sauces. Clinical Experience: Occupational asthma and food allergy caused by clam have been reported. | |||||||||||||||||
| 9946 | Allergen, Crab, (f23) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Chionocetes spp. Source material: Boiled crab meat Family: Oregoniidae Crab is a potent allergen, sometimes causing dramatic manifestations, such as anaphylaxis. Allergen Exposure: Boiled meat. Unexpected exposure: Dust and waste water in factories producing seafood products. | ||||||||||||||||
| 9948 | AA- Allergy, Seafood Panel | 82785 , 86003 x 14 | Total IgE Salmon, f41, IgE Clam, f207, IgE Halibut, f303, IgE Crab, f23, IgE Codfish, f3, IgE Shrimp, f24, IgE Trout, f204, IgE Scallop, f338, IgE Haddock, f42, IgE Oyster, f290, IgE Flounder, f147, IgE Lobster, f80, IgE Red Snapper, f381, IgE Tuna, f40, IgE | ||||||||||||||||
| 9950 | Allergen, Scallop (f338) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Pecten spp. Source material: Muscle Family: Pectinidae Allergen Exposure: Scallops, or fan shells, are found in all seas, shallow as well as deep. Adult scallops are usually free-swimming. The well-developed muscle is the food served as scallop or, in France Coquille St. Jacques. | ||||||||||||||||
| 9954 | Allergen, Lobster, (f80) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Homarus gammarus Source material: Lobster meat Family: Homaridae Crossreactivity to other shellfish has been demonstrated. Allergen Exposure: Cooked in various dishes. Occupational exposure among fishermen and in the fish industry. Potential Cross-Reactivity: Some allergen determinants are shared by members of the Crustacea group, such as shrimp, crab, crayfish, spiny lobster (langust). | ||||||||||||||||
| 10018 | Cyclospora and Isospora Examination | 87015, 87207 | Cyclospora cayetanensis and Isospora belli are coccidian parasites which cause malaise, low grade fever, and diarrhea. Fatigue, anorexia, vomiting, myalgia and weight loss occur. The clinical presentation for those patients infected with either disease issimilar. | Cyclospora Examination, Isospora Examination, Concentration | |||||||||||||||
| 10025 | AA- Allergy, Hymenoptera Panel | 82785 , 86003 X 8 | Honey Bee, i1 Cockroach, I6, IgE Peper Wasp, i4 White Hornet, i2 Yellow Hornet, i5 Yellow Jacket, i3 Fire Ant, i70 Total IgE Venom Peper Wasp, I4, IgE | ||||||||||||||||
| 10100 | GI Panel PCR | GI Panel tests for a comprehensive set of 22 gastrointestinal pathogens by Multiplex PCR. The GI Panel tests stool specimens for common pathogens associated with gastroenteritis. Quickly identifying the correct pathogen can ensure appropriate treatment, patient management and help decrease infectious gastroenteritis which can lead to severe illness or death. | BACTERIA: Campylobacter (jejuni, coli and upsaliensis), Clostridium difficile (toxin A/B), Plesiomonas shigelloides, Salmonella, Yersinia enterocolitica, Vibrio (parahaemolyticus, vulnificus and cholerae) Vibrio cholerae. DIARRHEAGENIC E. COLI/SHIGELLA: Enteroaggregative E. coli (EAEC, EPEC, ETEC lt/st), Shiga-like toxin-producing E. coli (STEC) stx1/stx2, E. coli O157, Shigella/Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC)PARASITES: Cryptosporidium, Cyclospora cayetanensis, Entamoeba histolytica, Giardia lamblia VIRUSES: Adenovirus F40/41, Astrovirus, Norovirus GI/GII, Rotavirus A, Sapovirus (I, II, IV & V). | ||||||||||||||||
| 10102 | Respiratory Viral Panel, PCR W Covid-19 | 87633 | The detection and identification of specific viral nucleic acids from individuals exhibiting signs and symptoms of respiratory infection aids in the diagnosis of respiratory viral infection. | VIRUSES : SARS-CoV-2 RNA , Coronavirus HKU1, Coronavirus NL63, Coronavirus 229E, Coronavirus OC43, Human Metapneumovirus, Human Rhinovirus/Enterovirus, ln-fluenza A, lnfluenzaNH1, lnfluenzaNH3, Influenza NH1 -2009, Influenza B, Parainfluenza Virus 1, Parainfluenza Virus 2, Parainfluenza Virus 3, Parainfluenza Virus 4, Respiratory Syncytial Virus. BACTERIA : Bordetella pertussis Chlamydophila pneumoniae Mycoplasma pneumo-niae. | |||||||||||||||
| 10108 | Culture, Stool | 87045, 87046, 87427 | Salmonella and Shigella, Culture Campylobacter, Culture | ||||||||||||||||
| 10119 | Vaginosis/Vaginitis Panel, PCR | 81513 87481 x2 87661 | The assay is intended to aid in the diagnosis of vaginitis using clinician collected and patient collected vaginal swab specimens from individuals with a clinical presentation consistent with vaginitis. Testing for bacterial vaginosis BV vulvovaginal candidiasis and trichomoniasis are included. | Candida vaginalis CV, Bacterial Vaginalis BV, Trichomonas vaginalis TV | |||||||||||||||
| 10156 | Lactoferrin, Qualitative, Stool | 83630 | Lactoferrin is a marker for fecal leukocytes and a positive result is an indicator of intestinal inflammation. This elevation may be caused by acute infectious colitis or active inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). The test may not be appropriate in immunocompromised persons. In addition, this test is not FDA cleared for patients with a history of HIV and/or hepatitis B and C, patients with a history of infectious diarrhea (within 6 months), and patients having had a colostomy and/or ileostomy within 1 month. | ||||||||||||||||
| 10180 | Prostaglandin D2 (PG-D2), Urine | 84150 | Prostaglandins are fatty acids derived from arachidonic acid metabolism. They are closely related to the Thromboxanes and Leukotrienes. Prostaglandin D2 is derived mainly from Prostaglandin H2, and is metabolized to Dihydroketo Prostaglandin D2. Prostaglandin D2 is excreted directly into the urine. The sites of highest Prostaglandin D2 activity are the brain, spinal cord, intestines, and stomach. Prostaglandin D2 is the major Prostaglandin produced by uterine tissue. Prostaglandin D2 is a potent bronchoconstrictor, neuromodulator, and anti-antithrombin agent. It also stimulates the secretion of Pancreatic Glucagon. Prostaglandin D2 has been found to have an anti- metastatic effect on many malignant tumor cells. Prostaglandin D2 production and circulating levels are drastically suppressed by aspirin and indomethacin. Urine Prostaglandin D2 levels give an integrated picture of Prostaglandin D2 production over a 24 hour period minimizing the effect of diurnal variation and episodic secretion. | ||||||||||||||||
| 10185 | Myositis Assess | See Individual Tests | PL-7, PL-12, Mi-2, Ku, EJ, OJ, SRP plus Jo-1 Antibody. | ||||||||||||||||
| 10186 | Epstein-Barr Virus DNA, Quantitative, Real-Time PCR | 87799 | Monitoring EBV DNA levels by quantitative PCR in patients at risk of EBV-associated lymphoproliferative disorders may allow timely recognition of virus reactivation and permit installment of antiviral treatment. This is a quantitative molecular test, with a linear range of 200-2,000,000 copies/mL. | ||||||||||||||||
| 10243 | N-Methylhistamine, Urine | 82542, 82570 | Screening for and monitoring of mastocytosis and disorders of systemic mast-cell activation, such as anaphylaxis and other forms of severe systemic allergic reactions.Monitoring therapeutic progress in conditions that are associated with secondary, localized, low-grade persistent, mast-cell proliferation and activation such as interstitial cystitis | ||||||||||||||||
| 10263 | PROTEIN ELECTROPHORESIS, URINE REFLEX TO IMMUNOTYPING | 82570, 84156, 84166 | Urine protein electrophoresis alone is not considered an adequate screening for monoclonal gammopathies. If a discrete electrophoresis band is identified, the laboratory will evaluate the urine protein electrophoresis and, if necessary, perform immunofixation at an additional charge. | Creatinine If monoclonal band is detected, immunofixation will be performed at an additional charge (CPT code(s): 86335). | |||||||||||||||
| 10269 | SPEP and Reflex to IFE, Serum | 84155, 84165 | Serum protein electrophoresis (SPE) is an analytical technique that provides separation of serum protein into six fractions: Albumin, Alpha-1, Alpha-2, Beta-1, Beta-2, and Gamma. Interpretation of elevation, decreased, or visual change in different fractions can be used as a diagnostic aid for a variety of different disease states and protein abnormalities, including monoclonal gammopathies (MG). | SPEP REF TO IFE, IGG, IGM, IGA, K&L FLC | |||||||||||||||
| 10458 | Cystic Fibrosis (CF) Screen | 81220 | General screen for carrier status and assessment of CF risk. This test will identify approximately 90 percent of Cystic Fibrosis (CF) mutations in the Caucasian population, and 97 percent in the Ashkenazi Jewish population. | ||||||||||||||||
| 10550 | Fibrosis-4 Index | 84450, 84460, 85049 | Liver Fibrosis, Fibrosis-4 (FIB-4) Index Panel - The FIB-4 index is a simple non-invasive approach using selected laboratory measures (AST, ALT, platelet count) in combination with patient age to assess if an individual is at higher risk for advanced liver fibrosis (F3-F4). | ||||||||||||||||
| 10570 | Cystatin C | 82610 | An index of glomerular filtration rate, especially in patients where serum creatinine may be misleading (eg, very obese, elderly, or malnourished patients). Assessing renal function in patients suspected of having kidney disease. Monitoring treatment response in patients with kidney disease. | ||||||||||||||||
| 10584 | Diabetes Autoantibody Panel | 86337, 86341 | Glutamic Acid Decarboxylase (GAD-65) Antibody is useful to diagnose insulin dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM, Type I diabetes), to assess risk for development of IDDM, to predict onset of IDDM, and risk of development of related endocrine disorders, e.g., thyroiditis. Before clinical onset, Type I diabetes is characterized by lymphocytic infiltration of the islet cells, and by circulating autoantibodies against a variety of islet cell antigens, including GAD-65, IA-2 (a tyrosine phosphatase-like protein), and insulin autoantibody (IAA). | ||||||||||||||||
| 10594 | Genosure Prime | 87906 | HIV genotype | Performing Laboratory Monogram Biosciences, Inc345 Oyster Point Blvd South San Francisco, CA 94080-1913 | |||||||||||||||
| 10600 | Cytomegalovirus DNA, Quantitative, Real-Time PCR | 87497 | In patients who are immunocompromised, CMV may cause disseminated, severe disease. CMV is also the most common cause of congenital viral infection in humans. Quantitative PCR methods may be useful in monitoring CMV replication in immunosuppressed patients or in determining the viral load of CMV in amniotic fluid. This is a quantitative molecular test, with a linear range of 200-2,000,000 IU/mL. | ||||||||||||||||
| 10662 | Mycophenolic Acid | 80180 | Mycophenolic acid is an immunosuppressant used in tissue transplants. It prevents graft rejection by the host's immune system. It is very important to monitor its level. Too little of this drug will cause graft rejectoin, while too much will lead to infection. Monitoring its level is essential to optimize therapeutic effects, avoid toxicity, and assure compliance. | ||||||||||||||||
| 10676 | Cytology, Non-Gynecological, Fluid, Washings, Brushings or FNA | 88, 104 | The nature of possible underlying disease states including cancer or infections can often be detected by microscopically visualizing cytological changes in cells which are exfoliated and captured by fluid extraction from body cavity, brushings, washings, or fine needle aspirations. | CPT code varies based on sample preparation requirements as follows: 88104 Fluid requiring simple smear preparation 88172 Determination of adequacy of specimen 88108 Fluid requiring concentration technique 88173 FNA interpretation 88114 Fluid requiring thin layer preparation 88305 Fluid requiring cell block preparation 88160 Smear(s) prepared by client 88161 Smear(s) requiring preparation 88162 Multiple smears (5 or more) requiring extended study 87207 Stain for inclusion bodies | |||||||||||||||
| 11011 | Allergen, Flaxseed (f333) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Linum usitatissimum Source material: Dried seeds Family: Linaceae Common Names: Linseed, Flaxseed Allergen Exposure: Geographical distribution: Flax has been cultivated and has grown semi-wild wild in various temperate and tropical regions for so many centuries that it is not even clear which hemisphere the plant originated from. Egyptians, Hebrews, Greeks, Romans and New World civilizations used the seeds as food and the fibres (flax) for textiles. | ||||||||||||||||
| 11040 | Silicon, Serum/Plasma | 84285 | Silicon is environmentally prevalent in that it makes up approximately 25 percent of the earth's crust. It is used in the manufacturing of transistors, silicon diodes and semiconductors. Symptoms of exposure are most often seen from inhalation of silica dust, which could cause a fibronodular lung disease called silicosis. | ||||||||||||||||
| 11108 | Bartonella DNA, Qualitative Real-Time PCR | 87471 | Bartonella DNA PCR is a highly specific and sensitive method to detect the presence of Bartonella species DNA in clinical specimens. This assay can differentiate between Bartonella henselae and Bartonella quintana. The diagnosis of Bartonella infection should not rely solely on the result of a PCR assay. A negative PCR result indicates only the absence of Bartonella species DNA in the sample tested and does not exclude the diagnosis of the disease. Patients with a positive PCR result should be evaluated with other tests to further establish the diagnosis of the disease. A positive result should be considered in conjunction with clinical presentation and additional established clinical tests. | Bartonella henselae, Bartonella quintana | |||||||||||||||
| 11175 | Alpha-Globin Common Mutation Analysis | 81257 | Alpha Thalassemia is a common hereditary trait and disease among individuals of Asian heritage. Disease ranges in severity from mild abnormalities of erythrocytic indices to severe anemia. Genetic counseling may be advised for some patients. | ||||||||||||||||
| 11234 | Kappa/Lambda Light Chains, Free with Ratio | 8388383883 | Monitoring patients with monoclonal light chain diseases but no M-spike on protein electrophoresis. | Kappa Light Chain, Free, Serum Lambda Light Chain, Free, Serum Kappa/Lambda Light Chains Free with Ratio | |||||||||||||||
| 11237 | CD25 | 88342 | To identify the presence of CD25 on the surface of the t lymphocytes, if present, this would qualify the patient for ONTAK™therapy. | ||||||||||||||||
| 11315 | Citric Acid, 24-Hour Urine without Creatinine | 82507 | Urine levels of citrate are increased in metabolic and respiratory alkalosis. Increased citrate excretion is associated with increased calcium excretion due to the formation of soluble citrate-calcium complexes in the kidney. Citrate levels are decreased in metabolic acidosis. As a result of lowered citrate excretion, calcium excretion may be reduced resulting in the formation of renal stones. | ||||||||||||||||
| 11318 | Oxalate, Quant, 24-Hour Urine | 83945 | Excessive oxalates in the urine may lead to oxalate kidney stones. Hyperoxaluria may be due to a rare inherited metabolic disorder in which the body produces excess of the salt oxalate, leading to stone formation. | ||||||||||||||||
| 11321 | Uric Acid, 24-Hour Urine without Creatinine | 84560 | Urine uric acid may supplement serum uric acid testing when trying to identify conditions in which there is alteration of uric acid production or excretion, e.g., gout, leukemia, renal disease. The amount of uric acid excreted may be useful in treating asymptomatic hyperuricemia. Measurement of urine uric acid is important in the investigation of urolithiasis. | ||||||||||||||||
| 11322 | Magnesium, 24-Hour Urine | 83735 | Useful in the assessment of nutritional and metabolic disorder. Increased levels indicate renal and respiratory failure and decreased levels indicate seizures, tetany, cardiac arrhythmias, Low CA++ and K+. | ||||||||||||||||
| 11343 | Protein S Panel | 85305, 85306, 86329 | Provides for distinguishing Type I, II, and III Protein S deficiency which may help in appropriate diagnosis, treatment and genetic counseling. | Protein S Activity; Protein S Antigen, Free; | |||||||||||||||
| 11348 | Hepatitis C Viral RNA, Quantitative, Real-Time PCR with Reflex to Genotype | 87522 | Useful in monitoring response to therapy and/or disease progression. | If Hepatitis C Viral RNA, Quantitative, Real-Time PCR , then Hepatitis C Viral RNA Genotype will be performed at an additional charge (CPT code 87902) | |||||||||||||||
| 11351 | BK Virus DNA, Qualitative, PCR, Plasma | 87798 | This test is used to determine the presence of BK Virus DNA in patient's specimens. Detection of the virus in these specimens may be indicative of an active infection, as PCR detects the presence of the virus, and not the host's reaction to the virus. Polyomavirus BK DNA detection in urine or plasma is associated with an increased risk of graft rejection in renal recipients. Quantitative testing may indicate change in risk over time. | ||||||||||||||||
| 11361 | Chlamydia trachomatis RNA, TMA | 87491 | C. trachomatis infections are the leading cause of sexually transmitted diseases in the united states. C. trachomatis is known to cause cervicitis, pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), epididymitis and proctitis. It is also the most frequent cause of non-gonococcal urethritis in men. Among women, the consequences of chlamydial infections are severe if left untreated. Approximately half of chlamydial infections are asymptomatic. | ||||||||||||||||
| 11362 | Neisseria gonorrhoeae RNA, TMA | 87591 | Gonorrhea is caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae, which is a common sexually transmitted infection (STI). (1,2) Many infections in women are asymptomatic and the true prevalence of gonorrhea is likely much higher than reported. The organism causes genitourinary infections in women and men and may be associated with dysuria and vaginal, urethral, and/or rectal discharge. Potential complications include pelvic inflammatory disease in women and gonococcal epididymitis and prostatitis in men. Gonococcal bacteremia, pharyngitis, and arthritis may also occur. Infection in men is typically associated with symptoms that would prompt clinical evaluation. Given the risk for asymptomatic infection in women, screening is recommended for women at increased risk of infection (e.g., women with previous gonorrhea or other STI, inconsistent condom use, new or multiple sex partners, and women in certain demographic groups, such as those in communities with high STI prevalence). | ||||||||||||||||
| 11363 | CT/NG NAA PCR | 87491, 87591 | C. trachomatis infections are the leading cause of sexually transmitted diseases in the United States. C. trachomatis is known to cause cervicitis, pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), epididymitis and proctitis. It is also the most frequent cause of non-gonococcal urethritis in men. Among women, the consequences of Chlamydial infections are severe if left untreated. Approximately half of Chlamydial infections are asymptomatic. Neisseria gonorrhoeae (gonococci) is the causative agent of gonorrhea. In men, this disease generally results in anterior urethritis accompanied by purulent exudate. In women, the disease is most often found in the cervix, but the vagina and uterus may alsobe infected. | Chlamydia trachomatis, Neisseria gonorrhoeae | |||||||||||||||
| 11364 | CT/NG/Trich PCR | 87491, 87591, 87661 | Detecting the present of Chlamydia trachomatis, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Trichomonas vaginalis. | Chlamydia trachomatis, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Trichomonas vaginalis PCR | |||||||||||||||
| 11365 | B. PERTUSSIS/PARAPERTUSSIS BY PCR | 87798 (x2) | To detect B. pertussis and/or B. parapertussis nucleic acid in clinical specimens | ||||||||||||||||
| 12030 | Aldolase, Serum | 82085 | Aldolase is necessary for glycolysis in muscle as a rapid response pathway for production of adenosine triphosphate, independent of tissue oxygen. Aldolase catalyses the conversion of fructose 1,6-diphosphate into dihydroxyacetone phosphate and glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate, an important reaction in the glycolytic breakdown of glucose to lactate in muscle. Aldolase is a tetramer whose primary structure depends upon the tissue from which it was synthesized (liver, muscle, brain). The brain form of aldolase has, because of its preponderance in white cells, been suggested to be a leukemia marker, but this is not confirmed. | ||||||||||||||||
| 12084 | Monkeypox Virus DNA, Qualitative Real-Time PCR | ||||||||||||||||||
| 12139 | Carcinoembryonic Antigen (CEA) | 82378 | Increased serum CEA levels have been detected in persons with primary colorectal cancer and in patients with other malignancies involving the gastrointestinal tract, breast, lung, ovarian, prostatic, liver and pancreatic cancers. Elevated serum CEA levels have also been detected in patients with nonmalignant disease, especially patients who are older or who are smokers. CEA levels are not useful in screening the general population for undetected cancers. However, CEA levels provide important information about patient prognosis, recurrence of tumors after surgical removal, and effectiveness of therapy. | ||||||||||||||||
| 12253 | AFP, Serum, Tumor Marker | 82105 | Elevation of serum AFP above values found in healthy individuals occurs in several malignant diseases, most notably nonseminomatous testicular cancer and primary hepatocellular carcinoma. AFP is not recommended as a screening procedure to detect cancer in the general population. The follow-up management of patients undergoing cancer therapy, especially for testicular and ovarian tumors and for hepatocellular carcinoma. | ||||||||||||||||
| 13024 | Allergen, Common Ragweed (W1) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Ambrosia elatior (Synonym: Ambrosia artemisifolia) Source material: Pollen Family: Asteraceae (Compositae) Common Names: Common ragweed, Annual ragweed, Short ragweed, Roman wormwood, American wormwood Synonyms: A. artemisifolia | ||||||||||||||||
| 14461 | Factor XIII, Functional | 85290 | Low Factor XIII levels, i.e., <15 percent, may cause a bleeding disorder and levels <2 percent have been associated with spontaneous introcranial hemorrhage. | ||||||||||||||||
| 14466 | LipoHealth NMR | 83704 | LipoHealth test is used in conjunction with other laboratory testing and clinical evaluation to assess lipoprotein and other metabolic disorders e.g. in the context of cardiovascular disease. | LDL Particle Number, SmallLDL particle number, HDL particle number, Large HDL particle number, Large VLDL particle number, LDL particle size, HDL particle size, VLDL Particle size | |||||||||||||||
| 14511 | Modified Acid Fast Stain for Nocardia and Aerobic Actinomycetes | 87206 | The clinical manifestations, severity and prognosis of nocardiosis are extremely variable. In immunocompetent hosts, localized subcutaneous infections are most commonly seen, however invasive disease may also occur | ||||||||||||||||
| 14512 | Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor (VEGF), ELISA | 83520 | Evaluation of patients with suspected POEMS (polyneuropathy, organomegaly, endocrinopathy, monoclonal gammopathy, and skin changes) syndrome, particularly in differentiating from other forms of polyneuropathy and monoclonal plasma cell disorders Monitoring response to treatment in patients with a known diagnosis of POEMS syndrome | ||||||||||||||||
| 14534 | Cortisol, Free, 24-Hour Urine | 82530 | Referred screening test for Cushing syndrome Diagnosis of pseudo-hyperaldosteronism due to excessive licorice consumption. This test has limited usefulness in the evaluation of adrenal insufficiency. | Creatinine | |||||||||||||||
| 14579 | Phosphorus, Random Urine | 84105 | Evaluation of hypo- or hyper-phosphatemic states Evaluation of patients with nephrolithiasis | ||||||||||||||||
| 14596 | Chromosome Analysis, Blood | 88230, 88262 | This test may assist with the detection of common chromosome abnormalities. | ||||||||||||||||
| 14693 | Pancreatic Elastase-1 | 82656 | Serum Elastase, also called Pancreatopeptidase, is a protease present in pancreatic secretion with the unique ability to rapidly hydrolyze elastin. Elastin is a fibrillar protein found in connective tissue. Elastin forms the elastic fibers found mostly in lungs and skin. Elastase is able to hydrolyze denatured hemoglobin, casein, fibrin, albumin and denatured but not native collagen. Elastase has been implicated in the pathogenesis of pulmonary emphysema, atherosclerosis and in the vascular injury of acute pancreatic necrosis. Elastase activity is inhibited by protease inhibitors including a1-Anti-Trypsin, a1-anti-Chymotrypsin, anti-Thrombin III, a2-Macroglobulin and b1-anti-Collagenase. Patients with thyroid dysfunction have decreased Elastase activity. Serum pancreatic levels quantify EL 1 for the diagnosis or exclusion of an acute pancreatitis or an inflammatory episode of chronic pancreatitis or gallstone induced pancreatitis. | ||||||||||||||||
| 14762 | Dopamine, Plasma | 82542 | Dopamine is mainly produced in the nervous system and adrenal medulla; it plays a role in many brain functions like behavior and cognition. The plasma reference ranges for dopamine are as follows : Supine adults - < 10 ng/ml (conventional units); < 0.065 nmol/L (SI units). | ||||||||||||||||
| 14839 | Helicobacter pylori, Urea Breath Test | 83013 | Helicobacter pylori is a gram-negative microaerophilic curved bacillus with an affinity for human gastric mucosa. H. pylori has been identified as an important pathogen in the upper GI tract. The casual relationship between H. pylori and chronic active gastritis, duodenal ulcers, and gastric ulcers has been well documented. BreathTek™ UBiT™ for H. pylori is a non-invasive, non-radioactive method for detecting urease activity associated with H. pylori infection. It is FDA approved to confirm cure and offers 95.2 percent sensitivity and 89.7 percent specificity compared with endoscopic methods. | ||||||||||||||||
| 14874 | Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia Panel | 86022 | Clinical picture of HIT type II: -In patients not previously exposed to heparin-Decrease in platelet count (thrombocytopenia) of 50 percent or more from baseline or postoperative peak. -Onset of thrombocytopenia beginning approximately 5 to 10 days after initiation of heparin this may or may not be associated with new or progressive thrombosis in patients treated with heparin. Patients previously exposed to heparin (especially within the preceding 100 days), in addition to the above findings, the onset of thrombocytopenia could occur within 24 to 48 hours after reexposure to heparin. | Serotonin Release Assay (SRA), Unfractionated Heparin Heparin-Induced Platelet Antibody | |||||||||||||||
| 14890 | Antiphospholipid Panel (APLs) | 86146 (x3),86147 (x3),86148 (x3) | Antiphospholipid antibody testing is used to help determine the cause of: Inappropriate blood clot formation (unexplained thrombotic episode, excessive clotting) Recurrent miscarriage, Low platelet count (thrombocytopenia), Prolonged PTT testDepending on a person's signs and symptoms and medical history, a healthcare practitioner may order one or more of these tests to help detect the presence of antiphospholipid antibodies and/or to help diagnose antiphospholipid syndrome (APS): Cardiolipin antibodies (IgG, IgM, and sometimes IgA) are frequently ordered since they are the most common antiphospholipid antibodies. Lupus anticoagulant assays (e.g., RVVT, LA-sensitive PTT) if a person has a prolonged PTT test. Beta-2 glycoprotein 1 testing may be ordered along with the other antiphospholipid antibodies to detect their presence and to provide the healthcare practitioner with additional information. If an antiphospholipid antibody is detected, the same test(s) may be repeated 12 weeks later to determine whether their presence is persistent or temporary. Testing may also be performed to help diagnose and/or evaluate a person with an autoimmune disorder, which can occur along with disorders like lupus. If a person with an autoimmune disorder tests negative for antiphospholipid antibodies, testing may be repeated to determine if an antibody has developed in the course of the disease.Profile Components: Anticardiolipin IgA; Anticardiolipin IgG; Anticardiolipin IgM; Beta-2-Glycoprotein I Antibodies IgA, Qn; Beta-2-Glycoprotein I Antibodies IgG, Qn; Beta-2-Glycoprotein I Antibodies IgM, Qn | ||||||||||||||||
| 14962 | Metanephrines, Fractionated, LC/MS/MS, 24-Hour Urine | 83835 | Test is useful in the evaluation of pheochromocytoma. | Metanephrine, Normetanephrine, Total Metanephrines | |||||||||||||||
| 14974 | Beta-Globin Complete | 81364 | 1) To identify disease-causing mutations in individuals affected with beta-thalassemia. 2) To identify carriers in high-risk ethnic group or people with positive family history. 3) Prenatal diagnosis of beta-thalassemia. | ||||||||||||||||
| 14978 | Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis Screen | 86606, 86609, 86331 | Support the clinical diagnosis of hypersensitivity pneumonitis. | Aspergillus fumigatus, Micropolyspora faeni, Pigeon Serum, T. candidus, T. vulgaris, S. viridis | |||||||||||||||
| 15000 | Cholestrol/HDL Ratio | To calculate your cholesterol ratio, divide your total cholesterol number by your HDL cholesterol number. So if your total cholesterol is 200 mg/dL (5.2 mmol/L) and your HDL is 50 mg/dL (1.3 mmol/L), your ratio would be 4-to-1. Higher ratios mean ahigher risk of heart disease. | |||||||||||||||||
| 15005 | LDL/HDL ratio | ||||||||||||||||||
| 15038 | Liver Kidney Microsomal (LKM-1) Antibody (IgG) | 86376 | The presence of LKM-1 antibodies can be used in conjunction with clinical findings and other laboratory tests to aid in the diagnosis of autoimmune liver diseases such as autoimmune hepatitis (AIH-2). | ||||||||||||||||
| 15043 | Actin (Smooth Muscle) Antibody IgG | 83516 | Actin is the major antigen to which smooth muscle antibodies react in autoimmune hepatitis. F-Actin IgG antibodies are found in 52-85 percent of patients with autoimmune hepatitis (AIH) or chronic active hepatitis and in 22 percent of patients with primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC). Anti-actin antibodies have been reported in 3-18 percent of sera from normal healthy controls. | ||||||||||||||||
| 15064 | Endomysial Antibody (IgA) Screen with Reflex to Titer | 86255 | Diagnosis of dermatitis herpetiformis and celiac disease. Monitoring adherence to gluten-free diet in patients with dermatitis herpetiformis and celiac disease. Because of the high specificity of endomysial antibodies for celiac disease, the test may obviate the need for multiple small bowel biopsies to verify the diagnosis. This may be particularly advantageous in the pediatric population, including the evaluation of children with failure to thrive. | If Endomysial Antibody (IgA) Screen is abnormal, Endomysial Antibody Titer will be performed at an additional charge (CPT code(s): 86256). | |||||||||||||||
| 15090 | Culture, Streptococcus Group B with Susceptibility | 87081 | Group B Streptococci can be one of the most significant pathogens in the neonatal period. The organism is transmitted to the newborn through the birth canal. Prepartum vaginal introitus and anorectal cultures are important to determine carriage. | If culture is positive, identification will be performed at an additional charge, (CPT code(s): 87077 or 87140 or 87143 or 87147 or 87149). Antibiotic susceptibilities will be performed on Group B streptococcus isolates (CPT code(s): 87181 or 87184 or 87186). | |||||||||||||||
| 15114 | Parietal Cell Antibody | 83516 | Gastric Parietal Cell Antibodies (GPA) test results are used in the diagnosis of pernicious anemia.Evaluating patients suspected of having pernicious anemia or immune-mediated deficiency of vitamin B12 with or without megaloblastic anemia | ||||||||||||||||
| 15142 | Levetiracetam | 80177 | Levetiracetam is an anticonvulsant used as adjunct therapy to treat adult partial seizures. As multiple anticonvulsants are administered, it is important to monitor its level to (1) optimize therapy, (2) assure compliance, and (3) to avoid toxicity. | ||||||||||||||||
| 15240 | Coccidioides Antibody, CF and ID, Serum | 86635 (x2) | Coccidioides Antibody, CF and ID, Serum - Infection by Coccidioides immitis can produce a spectrum of disease, with most patients being asymptomatic and some developing disseminated disease, including pneumonia and meningitis | Coccidioides Antibody, CFCoccidioides Antibody, ID | |||||||||||||||
| 15260 | Streptozyme Screen with Reflex to Titer | 86403 | Screening test for antibodies to the streptococcal antigens NADase, DNase, streptokinase, streptolysin O, and hyaluronidase. This test is most useful in evaluating suspected poststreptococcal disease following Streptococcus pyogenes infection, such as rheumatic fever. | ||||||||||||||||
| 15561 | Thyroglobulin Quantitative | 84432 | Thyroglobulin (TG) is a secretory product only of the thyroid gland. The major clinical use of serum TG measurement is to monitor, but not to diagnose, patients with well-differentiated thyroid cancers. The measurement of thyroglobulin, after thyroidectomy and ablation of the thyroid gland, is useful to determine metastasis. Deficient TG synthesis is observed in infants with goitrous hypothyroidism. With immunometric assays (sandwich assays), TGAB interferene typically produces inappropriately low TG results, most likely caused by endogenous TG immune complexes that block one or more of the reagent Ab from binding endogenous TG. | ||||||||||||||||
| 15568 | Stonerisk Citrate Test | 82507, 82570 | |||||||||||||||||
| 15983 | DO NOT USE | 84403, 84270 | |||||||||||||||||
| 16039 | Mannose-Binding Lectin (MBL) | 83520 | Evaluation of children and adults with a clinical history of recurrent infections. Results may be useful for genetic counseling and support aggressive management of recurrent infections in patients with reduced levels of mannose-binding lectin. | ||||||||||||||||
| 16262 | Lacosamide, LC/MS/MS | 80299 | Lacosamide is an antiepileptic medication. Monitoring the serum concentration is beneficial to ensure compliance with drug therapy. | ||||||||||||||||
| 16265 | Procalcitonin | 84145 | Diagnosis of bacteremia and septicemia in adults and children (including neonates). Diagnosis of renal involvement in urinary tract infection in children. Diagnosis of bacterial infection in neutropenic patients.Diagnosis, risk stratification, and monitoring of septic shock.Diagnosis of systemic secondary infection post-surgery, and in severe trauma, burns, and multiorgan failure.Differential diagnosis of bacterial versus viral meningitis.Differential diagnosis of community-acquired bacterial versus viral pneumonia.Monitoring of therapeutic response to antibacterial therapy | ||||||||||||||||
| 16283 | Fungitell (1-3)-�-D-Glucan Assay | 84311 | Invasive Fungal Infections (IFI) are increasing, especially among immunocompromised patients. Most pathogenic fungi have (1->3)-beta-D-glucan in their cell walls and minute quantities are sloughed into the bloodstream and appear in the serum in cases ofIFI. Monitoring serum (1->3)-beta-D-glucan for evidence of elevated and rising levels provides a convenient surrogate marker for IFI. | ||||||||||||||||
| 16293 | IGF-1 | 84305 | Diagnosing growth disorders. Diagnosing adult growth hormone deficiency. Monitoring of recombinant human growth hormone treatment. Insulin-like growth factor binding protein 3 can be used as a possible adjunct to insulin-like growth factor 1 and growth hormone in the diagnosis and follow-up of acromegaly and gigantism. | ||||||||||||||||
| 16322 | Osteocalcin, N-MID | 83937 | Monitoring and assessing effectiveness of antiresorptive therapy in patients treated for osteopenia, osteoporosis, Paget's disease, or other disorders in which osteocalcin levels are elevated As an adjunct in the diagnosis of medical conditions associated with increased bone turnover, including Paget's disease, cancer accompanied by bone metastases, primary hyperparathyroidism, and renal osteodystrophy | ||||||||||||||||
| 16377 | Clostridium difficile Toxin B, Qualitative, Real-Time PCR | 87493 | Clostridium difficile Toxin B, Qualitative, Real-Time PCR - C. difficile is the major cause of antibiotic-associated diarrhea (AAD) and pseudomembranous colitis. | ||||||||||||||||
| 16379 | Chromogranin A | 86316 | Chromogranin A (CgA) is used as an adjunct in the diagnosis of carcinoid tumors. Measurements of CgA are also used to assess disease progression, response to therapy, or recurrence after surgical resection. | ||||||||||||||||
| 16490 | Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis Evaluation | 86609, 86606, 86001 | Support the clinical diagnosis of hypersensitivity pneumonitis. | Saccharomonospora rectivirgula, Saccharomonospora viridis, Thermoactinomyces candidus, Thermoactinomyces sacchari, Thermoactinomyces vulgaris, Aspergillus fumigatus, Aureobasidium pullulans IgG, Alternaria tenuis IgG, Cladosporium herbarum IgG, Penicillium notatum IgG, Phoma spp IgG, Trichoderma viride IgG, Mixed Feathers IgG, Pigeon Droppings IgG | |||||||||||||||
| 16491 | Vaginosis Panel with CT/NG | 87491, 87512, 87591, 87799 | To diagnose bacterial vaginosis and concomitant infection with Chlamydia trachomatis and/or Neisseria gonorrhoeae in sexually active women. | SureSwab and trade; Bacterial Vaginosis DNA, Quantitative, Real-Time PCR (Lactobacillus species, Atopobium vaginae, Megasphaera species, Gardnerella vaginalis) | |||||||||||||||
| 16503 | Inflammatory Bowel Disease Differentiation Panel | 86671, 86021 | These tests are intended to aid in the diagnosis of Crohn's Disease. A positive P-ANCA aids in the differentiation of patients with ulcerative colitis. | ANCA Screen with Reflex to ANCA Titer, Myeloperoxidase Ab (MPO), Proteinase-3 Antibody, Saccharomyces cerevisiae Ab (ASCA) IgG, Saccharomyces cerevisiae Ab (ASCA) IgAIf ANCA Screen is positive, C-ANCA Titer and/or P-ANCA Titer and/or atypical P-ANCA Titer will be performed at an additional charge (CPT code(s): 86021 for each titer performed) . | |||||||||||||||
| 16553 | BK Virus DNA, Qualitative, PCR, Urine | 87798 | This test is used to determine the presence of BK virus DNA in patient's specimens. Detection of the virus in these specimens may be indicative of an active infection, as PCR detects the presence of the virus, and not the host's reaction to the virus. Polyomavirus BK DNA detection in urine is associated with an increased risk of graft rejection in renal recipients. | ||||||||||||||||
| 16558 | Calcitriol(1,25-Dihydroxy Vit D) | 82652 | This test is used to measure the bio-active form of Vitamin D. This test is also used in the differential diagnosis of hypocalcemia and to monitor patients with renal osteodystrophy or chronic renal failure. | Vitamin D, 1,25 (OH)2, Total; Vitamin D3, 1,25 (OH)2; Vitamin D2, 1,25 (OH)2 | |||||||||||||||
| 16599 | Iodine, Plasma | 83789 | Iodine is an essential element that is required for thyroid hormone production. The measurement of iodine serves as an index of adequate dietary intake. Diet, medication, and nutritional supplements may introduce interfering substances. Patients should be encouraged to discontinue nutritional supplements, vitamins, minerals and non-essential over-the-counter medications (upon the advice of their physician) for 1 week prior to collection. Avoid exposure to contrast media for 96 hours prior to collection. | ||||||||||||||||
| 16601 | Iodine, Random Urine | 83789 | Iodine is an essential element that is required for thyroid hormone production. The measurement of urinary iodine serves as an index of adequate dietary intake. | ||||||||||||||||
| 16603 | QFT (Discontinued) | ||||||||||||||||||
| 16692 | Thyroglobulin Antibodies Panel | 84432, 86800 | Thyroglobulin (TG) is a secretory product only of the thyroid gland. The major clinical use of serum TG measurement is to monitor, but not to diagnose, patients with well-differentiated thyroid cancers. The measurement of thyroglobulin, after thyroidectomy and ablation of the thyroid gland, is useful to determine metastasis.Deficient TG synthesis is observed in infants with goitrous hypo-thyroidism. Most patients with thyroid autoimmune disease have thyroglobulin antibody. With immunometric assays (sandwich assays), TGAB interference typically produces inappropriately low TG results, most likely caused by endogenous TG immune complexes that block one or more of the reagent antibodies from binding endogenous TG. | Thyroglobulin Antibodies and Quantitative Thyroglobulin | |||||||||||||||
| 16694 | Hepatitis B Virus RT PCR, Quant Rfx Genotype | 87517 | Chronic carriers will persist in producing detectable HBV. Patients with chronic liver disease of unknown origin most commonly have HBV that is detected by viral DNA testing. Quantitative measurement of HBV viral DNA may be used to monitor progression of disease. | ||||||||||||||||
| 16796 | Calprotectin, Stool | 83993 | Used to diagnose inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), including Chron's disease and ulcerative colitis, or to differentiate IBD from irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). | ||||||||||||||||
| 16845 | Aldosterone/Plasma Renin Activity Ratio | 82088, 84244 | The Aldosterone-renin ratio is used to screen for primary aldosteronism. | Aldosterone, Plasma Renin Activity, Aldosterone/Renin Ratio | |||||||||||||||
| 16846 | Renin Activity, Plasma | 84244 | Investigation of primary aldosteronism (eg, adrenal adenoma/carcinoma and adrenal cortical hyperplasia) and secondary aldosteronism (renovascular disease, salt depletion, potassium loading, cardiac failure with ascites, pregnancy, Bartter syndrome)Not useful for determination of plasma renin concentration | ||||||||||||||||
| 16963 | Streptococcus pneumoniae IgG Antibody (23 Serotypes) | 86317 | Responses to pneumococcal conjugate vaccines are demonstrated by 2- to 4-fold increases in type-specific IgG levels. | Serotypes 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 8, 9 (9N), 12 (12F), 17 (17F), 14, 19 (19F), 20, 22 (22F), 23 (23F), 26 (6B), 34 (10A), 43 (11A), 51 (7F), 54 (15B), 56 (18C), 57 (19A), 68 (9V), 70 (33F) | |||||||||||||||
| 16985 | Transferrin, Carbohydrate-deficient (Alcohol Use) | 82373, 84466 | Heavy alcohol use (defined as >4 or 5 beverages per day for two weeks or more) is commonly associated with elevated CDT levels as are certain liver diseases such as primary biliary cirrhosis and chronic active hepatitis and in some patients with genetic D variants of transferrin. | CDT; Transferrin; Percent CDT | |||||||||||||||
| 17054 | Ammonia, Plasma | 82140 | Ammonia is a waste product of protein catabolism; it is potentially toxic to the central nervous system. Increased plasma ammonia may be indicative of hepatic encephalopathy, hepatic coma in terminal stages of liver cirrhosis, hepatic failure, acute and subacute liver necrosis, and Reye's syndrome. Hyperammonemia may also be found with increasing dietary protein intake. The major cause of hyperammonemia in infants includes inherited deficiencies of urea cycle enzymes, inherited metabolic disorders of organic acids and the dibasic amino acids lysine and ornithine, and severe liver disease. | ||||||||||||||||
| 17133 | SELENIUM, RBC | 84255 | |||||||||||||||||
| 17180 | 17-OH Progesterone LCMS | 83498 | 17-hydroxyprogesterone is elevated in patients with congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH). CAH is a group of autosomal recessive diseases characterized by a deficiency of cortisol and an excess of ACTH concentration. 17-hydroxyprogesterone is also useful in monitoring cortisol replacement therapy and in evaluating infertility and adrenal and ovarian neoplasms. | Separate serum after clotting and transfer serum to transfer tube, Ship serum refrigerated or frozen. | |||||||||||||||
| 17181 | Aldosterone , Serum | 82088 | Investigation of primary aldosteronism (eg, adrenal adenoma/carcinoma and adrenal cortical hyperplasia) and secondary aldosteronism (renovascular disease, salt depletion, potassium loading, cardiac failure with ascites, pregnancy, Bartter syndrome) | ||||||||||||||||
| 17182 | Androstenedione, LC/MS/MS | 82157 | Androstenedione is useful when evaluating patients with androgen excess and managing patients with Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (CAH). | ||||||||||||||||
| 17185 | HPV DNA, Low and High Risk, Anal-Rectal | 87624 | This test is used to detect the presence of HPV DNA in anorectal mucosa. | ||||||||||||||||
| 17406 | Collagen Type I C-Telopeptide (CTx) | 82523 | Preferred test to measure bone resorption Adjunct in the diagnosis of medical conditions associated with increased bone turnover such as rickets, osteomalacia, hyperthyroidism, multiple myeloma Monitor response to antiresorptive therapy (eg, bisphosphonate, hormone replacement therapy) in postmenopausal women and individuals with disorders such as osteopenia, osteoporosis, and Paget disease Does not replace bone mineral density (BMD) screening in diagnosing osteoporosis | ||||||||||||||||
| 17561 | BasoFunction HRT Penicillin Benzylpen | 8,600,386,343 | This test may be useful with patients for whom skin testing and or in vitro IgE testing in not appropriate or available. This is an in vitro challenge of whole blood with histamine as a measure of cell stimulation. | Patient Preparation Patients taking calcineurin inhibitors should stop their medication 72 hours prior to draw. Patients taking prednisone should stop medication for 2 weeks prior to draw. Collection Instructions Specimen must be received within 48 hours of draw. Submit Monday through Wednesday only. Specimens must be drawn after 11: 00 am. Do not submit samples on weekends or the day before a holiday. | |||||||||||||||
| 17611 | HCV FibroSURE | 82172, 82247, 82977, 83010, 83883, 84460 | Assessment of liver status following a diagnosis of HCV. Baseline determination of liver status before initiating HCV therapy. Posttreatment assessment of liver status six months after completion of therapy. Noninvasive assessment of liver status in patients who are at increased risk of complications from a liver biopsy. | ||||||||||||||||
| 17682 | 17-Hydroxyprogesterone Response to ACTH Stimulation | 83498 (x2) | 17-hydroxyprogesterone is elevated in patients with congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH). CAH is a group of autosomal recessivediseases characterized by a deficiency of cortisol and an excess of ACTH concentration. 17-hydroxyprogesterone is also useful inmonitoring cortisol replacement therapy and in evaluating infertility and adrenal and ovarian neoplasms. | 17-Hydroxyprogesterone, Baseline 17-Hydroxyprogesterone, 60 Minutes | |||||||||||||||
| 17825 | Bordetella pertussis Antibodies (IgG, IgA), MAID | 86615 (x2) | Antibody levels above the reference range are highly suggestive of recent infection or vaccination. | Pertussis toxin IgG, Pertussis toxin IgA, Filamentous Hemagglutinin Antigen IgG, Filamentous Hemagglutinin Antigen IgA | |||||||||||||||
| 17875 | Leptospira DNA, Qualitative, Real-Time PCR | 87798 | PCR can be used to rapidly diagnose Leptospirosis, an infection caused by a waterborne spirochete of the genus Leptospira. In addition, testing of blood, CSF and urine may give an indication of the stage of infection. | ||||||||||||||||
| 17900 | Factor V (Leiden) Mutation Analysis | 81241 | Factor V Leiden mutation testing should be reserved for patients with clinically suspected thrombophilia and: 1) APC-resistance proven or suspected by a low or borderline APC-resistance ratio, or 2) a family history of factor V Leiden. Venous thromboembolism includes deep vein thrombosis and its complication, pulmonary embolism. Plasma from 12 percent to 20 percent of venous thromboembolism patients is resistant to the anticoagulant effect of activated protein C (APC resistance). Essentially all patients with hereditary APC resistance have a single nucleotide mutation of the coagulation factor V gene (F5 rs6025), which encodes for an arginine ™ to glutamine (Q) substitution at position 506 of the factor V protein (FV R506Q). The factor V Leiden (R506Q) gene mutation test is a direct mutation analysis of patient blood leukocyte genomic DNA. | ||||||||||||||||
| 17909 | Prothrombin (Factor II) 20210G - A Mutation Analysis | 81240 | Clinical Significance: Factor II Mutation (G20210A) is one of the most common causes of venous thrombosis. 2.3 percent of the general population is heterozygous in contrast with 6.2 percent of patients with venous thrombosis and 18 percent with familial venous thrombosis. Other risk factors compound the risk for venous thrombosis. Limitations: If this mutation is not found by the testing procedure, it does not mean that the risk of carrying or developing deep vein thrombosis is not present. It simply means that this specific mutation has not been found, although other mutations may be present. It is also possible that such a patient may have secondary deep vein thrombosis due to non-genetic causes that would not be detected by this test. A person with one copy of the mutation has an approximate 3-fold increase in risk for venous thrombosis. The increase in risk for a person with two copies of the mutation is not known. | ||||||||||||||||
| 17911 | Methylenetetrahydrofolate Reductase (MTHFR), DNA Mutation Analysis | 81291 | Direct mutation analysis for the MTHFR C677T mutation should be reserved for patients with coronary artery disease, acute myocardial infarction, peripheral vascular artery disease, stroke, or venous thromboembolism who have increased basal homocysteine levels or an abnormal methionine-load test | ||||||||||||||||
| 18831 | TPMT ACTIVITY | 80375 | Help prevent hepatotoxicity from thiopurine therapy.This test helps identify individuals at increased risk of hepatotoxicity from thiopurine dose escalation. Patients with a TMPTactivity of 4-12 nmol 6-MMP/hr/mL RBC (heterozygote/low metabolizer) are at increased risk and may require a lower dose ofthiopurine drug. | ||||||||||||||||
| 18866 | Pregabalin | 80366, 80299 | Monitoring serum pregabalin (Lyrica) concentrations, assessing compliance, and adjusting dosage in patients.regabalin (Lyrica) is an anticonvulsant drug used to treat partial seizures in patients and is a more potent successor to gabapentin. Pregabalin is commonly used for neuropathic pain and fibromyalgia. This test can be used by physicians to assess compliance and may be clinically useful in patients with renal failure who generally require lower dosages. Therapeutic and toxic ranges are not well defined. Therapeutic concentrations are reported to be from 2 to 5 mcg/mL, while toxicity may occur at concentrations above 10 mcg/mL. | ||||||||||||||||
| 18939 | JC Virus DNA,PCR | 87799 | JC polyoma virus is the cause of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML), a demyelinating neurologic disease of immunocompromised patients and patients on certain medications. This test detects and quantifies JCV in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Detection of the virus in CSF may indicate infection. | ||||||||||||||||
| 19146 | CD4, IHC with Interpretation | 88342 | The following CD markers are expressed on specific hemotologic cells. Individual and a series of IHC markers can be run on unknown cells and presence or absence of the antigen can help to characterize the cell of interest. | ||||||||||||||||
| 19529 | Alpha-Fetoprotein (AFP) and AFP-L3 | 82107 | This assay is intended for use in the assessment of risk for the development of hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) in patients with chronic liver disease. | ||||||||||||||||
| 19548 | Metanephrines, Fractionated, Free, LC/MS/MS, Plasma | 83835 | Normetanephrine (NM) and metanephrine (MN) are the extra-neuronal catechol-o-methyl transferase (COMT) metabolites of the catecholamines norepinephrine and epinephrine, respectively. Measurement of plasma metanephrines is more sensitive (but may be less specific) than measurement of catecholamines for the detection of pheochromocytoma. Proper interpretation of results requires awareness of recent edication/drug history (e.g., antyhypertensive agents, alcohol, cocaine) and other pre-analytical factors (e.g., stress, severe congestive heart failure, myocardial infarction) that influence release of catecholamines and metanephrines. | Metanephrine, Normetanephrine, and Total Metanephrine | |||||||||||||||
| 19564 | Streptococcus pneumoniae Antibody (IgG) (14 Serotypes) | 86317 | Responses to pneumococcal conjugate vaccines are demonstrated by 2-to 4-fold increases in type-specific IgG levels. | Serotypes 1, 3, 4, 5, 8, 9 (9N), 12 (12F), 14, 19 (19F), 23 (23F), 26 (6B), 51 (7F), 56 (18C), 68 (9V) | |||||||||||||||
| 19590 | BasoFunction HRT Sulfamethoxazole (sulfa Allergy) | 86343 | This test may be useful with patients for whom skin testing and/or in vitro IgE testing in not appropriate or available. This is an in vitro challenge of whole blood with histamine as a measure of cell stimulation. | ||||||||||||||||
| 19599 | GlycoMark, 1,5-Anhydroglucitol (1,5AG) | ||||||||||||||||||
| 19723 | Herpesvirus 6 DNA, Quantitative Real-Time PCR | 87533 | This test is used to determine the presence of HHV-6 DNA in patients' specimens. Organisms may be detected by PCR prior to detection by immunological methods. PCR provides more rapid results than other methods, including culture. | ||||||||||||||||
| 19767 | Drug Monitoring, Drugs Screen 7 with Conf., Serum | 80307 | Toxicology screen is used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. Drug screen results may need to be confirmed with LCMS. | Amphetamines, Barbiturates, Benzodiazepines, Cocaine Metabolites, Marijuana Metabolites, Opiates, PCP (Phencyclidine) | |||||||||||||||
| 19774 | HLA-B5701 Typing | 81381 | Abacavir therapy for HIV treatment is associated with significant drug hypersensitivity in approximately 8 percent of recipients, with retrospective studies indicating a strong association with the HLA-B5701 allele. HLA-B5701 typing can be used for genetic risk stratification prior to initiation of abacavir therapy. | Additional testing by Sequence Based Typing (SBT) may be performed when necessary. | |||||||||||||||
| 19790 | von Willebrand Comprehensive Panel | 85240, 85245, 85246, 85247, 85730 | Detection of deficiency or abnormality of von Willebrand factor and related deficiency of factor VIII coagulant activity Subtyping von Willebrand disease as type 1 (most common), type 2 variants (less common), or type 3 (rare) This test is not useful for detection of hemophilia carriers. | Partial Thromboplastin Time, Activated; Factor VIII Activity, Clotting; von Willebrand Factor Antigen; Ristocetin Cofactor; von Willebrand Antigen, Multimeric Analysis; Interpretation | |||||||||||||||
| 19826 | Coenzyme Q10 | 82491 | Coenzyme Q10 (CoQ10) is a fat soluble cofacter that is essential for energy producing metabolic pathways and for the proper functioning of the mitochondrial oxidative system. With insufficient CoQ10, the electron transfer activity of the mitochondria decreases, resulting in a net failure to produce the energy necessary to run the cell. Tissues with high energy demand have even greater demands for CoQ10. For example, heart muscle, which continually exerts a pumping action for an entire lifetime, has an immense need for the cofactor. Studies demonstrate the effectiveness of supplemental coenzyme Q10 in cardiomyopathy, myocardial dysfunction, and congestive heart failure. CoQ10 is also a powerful antioxidant like vitamins E and C, and thus serves the role of neutralizing excess free radicals. It is now well established that the control of excessive free radical activity is key in preventing/delaying the progression of degenerative diseases. | ||||||||||||||||
| 19873 | AutoImmune Hepatitis Diagnostic Panel | 86038, 86255, 83516, 86376 | The detection of a number of autoantibodies supports the diagnosis of autoimmune hepatitis. | ANA Screen (IFA) with Reflex to Titer, Mitochondrial Antibody with Reflex to Titer, Actin (Smooth Muscle) Antibody (IgG), Liver Kidney Microsome (LKM-1) Antibody (IgG). If ANA Screen, IFA is positive, then ANA Titer and Pattern will be performed at an additional charge (CPT code(s): 86039). If Mitochondrial Antibody Screen is positive, then Mitochondrial Antibody Titer will be performed at an additional charge (CPT code(s): 86256). | |||||||||||||||
| 19887 | RNP Antibody | 86235 | Evaluating patients with signs and symptoms of a connective tissue disease in whom the test for antinuclear antibodies is positive | ||||||||||||||||
| 19897 | Cortisol, LC/MS/MS, Saliva | 82530 | Screening for Cushing syndrome Diagnosis of Cushing syndrome in patients presenting with symptoms or signs suggestive of the disease. | ||||||||||||||||
| 19963 | Coccidioides Antibodies (IgG,IgM) | 86635 | Coccidioides Antibodies (IgG, IgM) - Detection of antibodies to Coccidioides antigens plays an important role in identifying patients with coccidioidomycosis. Antibodies to Coccidioides TP antigen usually appear during the first week of infection, and remain detectable for approximately 5 months; their detection indicates recent, active infection. Antibodies to Coccidioides F antigen appear within a month of infection, and remain detectable for up to a year thereafter. | Antibody to TP Antigen (IgM) and Antibody to F Antigen (IgG) | |||||||||||||||
| 19964 | Coccidioides Antibodies (IgG, IgM), with Reflex to Immunodiffusion (ID) and Complement Fixation (CF) | ||||||||||||||||||
| 20341 | Aspergillus Antibodies, Immunodiffusion | 86606 (x3) | Aspergillus flavus, Aspergillus fumigatus, Aspergillus niger | ||||||||||||||||
| 20541 | Culture, Yeast, with Identification | 87102 | The significance of a yeast isolate varies with the organism identification, source, and clinical symptoms manifested. | ||||||||||||||||
| 22060 | Lamotrigine | 80175 | Lamotrigine is an anticonvulsant drug used as adjunctive treatment for refactory partial seizures. | ||||||||||||||||
| 23244 | Estrone, LC/MS/MS | 82679 | Estrone is primarily derived from metabolism of androstenedione in peripheral tissues, especially adipose tissues. Individuals with obesity have increased conversion of androstenedione to Estrone leading to higher concentrations. In addition, an increase in the ratio of Estrone to Estradiol may be useful in assessing menopause in women. | ||||||||||||||||
| 23860 | Allergen, Mango Fruit (f91) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Mangifera indica Source material: Fresh fruit Family: Anacardiaceae Food A food, which may result in allergy symptoms in sensitized individuals. | ||||||||||||||||
| 23863 | Allergen, Cotton Seed (k83) IgE | 86003 | Code: k83 Latin name: Gossypium hirsutum Family: Malvaceae (Mallow) Common Names: Cotton seed, Cottonseed A number of Gossypium species are relevant in the consideration of this allergen. | ||||||||||||||||
| 23864 | Allergen, Sunflower Seed (k84) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Helianthus annuus Source material: Whole seeds Family: Asteraceae (Compositae) Allergy to sunflower seeds is frequently associated with inhalant allergy to pollen from plants of the family Compositae. | ||||||||||||||||
| 23893 | Allergen, Gulf Flounder (F147) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Paralichthys albigutta Source material: Fillet, without skin and bone Family: Paralichtyidae | ||||||||||||||||
| 26281 | Allergen, Raspberry (rf343) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Rubus idaeus Source material: Fruit Family: Rosaceae Common Names: Raspberry, Red raspberry, Wild raspberry, Common red raspberry, European red raspberry, American red raspberry Synonyms: R. buschii, R. vulgatus var. buschii Important included species: R. occidentalis -Black raspberry/Thimbleberry | ||||||||||||||||
| 26474 | Acetylcholine Receptor Modulating Antibody | 83519 | Myasthenia Gravis (MG) is an autoimmune neuromuscular disorder characterized by muscle weakness, most commonly due to autoantibody-mediated loss of functional acetylcholine receptors (AChR) in the neuromuscular junction. AChR binding autoantibodies are diagnostic of MG, and are found in 85-90 percent of MG patients. AChR modulating antibodies cross-link AChR molecules on cell surface, promoting internalization, and decreasing AChR surface density. The AChR binding and modulating antibody assays have similar sensitivities, but performing them together increases sensitivity of antibody detection by approximately 5 percent. | ||||||||||||||||
| 28480 | FSH and LH | 83001 | |||||||||||||||||
| 29256 | Cancer Antigen (CA) 125, Serum | 86304 | The CA 125 level can provide prognostic information in the follow-up management of patients with ovarian carcinoma. The assay should be used as an adjunctive test in the management of ovarian cancer patients. CA 125 is not recommended as a cancer screening procedure to detect cancer in the general population. | ||||||||||||||||
| 29391 | Dexamethasone, Serum | 80299 | Test used in the differential diagnosis of Cushing's syndrome. | ||||||||||||||||
| 29479 | Chlamydia/Chlamydophila Antibody Panel 3 (IgG, IgA, IgM) | 86631(x6), 86632 (x3) | Chlamydia/Chlamydophila species include C. pneumoniae, C. psittaci, and C. trachomatis. Each may cause pneumonia and other overlapping medical conditions. | Chlamydia trachomatis (IgG, IgM, IgA), Chlamydophila pneumoniae (IgG, IgM, IgA), Chlamydophila psittaci (IgG, IgM, IgA) | |||||||||||||||
| 29493 | CA 27.29 | 86300 | CA 27.29 may be useful for monitoring patients for metastatic breast cancer. | ||||||||||||||||
| 29498 | Alkaline(BAP) | 84075 | Quantitative measurement of skeletal alkaline phosphatase to be used as an aid in the management of patients with Paget disease and osteoporosis | ||||||||||||||||
| 29837 | Isohemagglutinin Titer | 86886 | Determine the isoagglutinin status of the patient. Maternal isohemagglutinins are associated with ABO-hemolytic disease of the newborn. | A1, A2, B | |||||||||||||||
| 29851 | Serotonin, Serum | 84260 | In conjunction with, or as an alternative to first-order test in the differential diagnosis of isolated symptoms suggestive of carcinoid syndrome, in particular flushing (5-HIAA or serum chromogranin A measurements are first-line tests)Second-order test in the follow-up of patients with known or treated carcinoid tumors in serum specimens | ||||||||||||||||
| 30260 | Stone Analysis | 82365 | Stone Analysis is used in determining the etiology of stones. The results are often useful in determining the cause and treatment. | ||||||||||||||||
| 30292 | Heparin, Anti-Xa | 85520 | This assay is useful in measuring heparin concentration in patients treated with low molecular weight heparins (i.e. Enoxaparin/Lovenox) or unfractionated heparin. It is not intended for measurement of Rivaroxaban (Xarelto) or Fondaparinux (Arixtra). Refer to test code 90981 for Rivaroxaban measurement and test code 16103 for Fondaparinux measurement. | ||||||||||||||||
| 30294 | Quad Screen | 82105, 82677, 84702, 86336, 81511 | Maternal serum Quad Screen is used for prenatal screening of Down syndrome (Trisomy 21), Trisomy 18 (Edwards syndrome),and open neural tube defects (ONTD). This profile includes alpha-fetoprotein (AFP), unconjugated estriol (E3), human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), and inhibin A. Establishing risk for fetal Down syndrome, using the quad screen achieves a 70-75 percent detection rate with a 5 percent false positive rate. Screening for Trisomy 18 detects 60 percent of affected fetuses with a 0.2 percent false positive rate. MSAFP screening detects 88 percent of anencephaly and 79 percent of open spina bifida with a 3 percent false positive rate. Normal results do not ensure birth of a normal infant. In addition, 2-3 percent of newborns have some type of physical or mental defect, many of which may be undetectable with current prenatal diagnostic procedures. | AFP, unconjugated Estriol, hCG, Dimeric Inhibin A and Maternal Risk Interpretation | |||||||||||||||
| 30321 | Mitochondria M2 Antibody (IgG), EIA | 83520 | Mitochondrial antibody is present in approximately 95 percent of patients with Primary Biliary Cirrhosis (PBC). Mitochondrial M2 antibody has an even higher specificity for PBC | ||||||||||||||||
| 30340 | Beta-2-Glycoprotein I Antibodies (IgG, IgA, IgM) | 86146 | Beta-2-Glycoprotein 1, apolipoprotein H, is a cofactor in antiphospholipid antibody binding and is the critical antigen in the antiphospholipid antibody syndrome. Beta-2-Glycoprotein 1 Antibody is more specific than Cardiolipin Antibody that may express reactivity in patients with syphilis and other infectious diseases. | B2-Glycoprotein I (IgG) B2-Glycoprotein I (IgA) B2-Glycoprotein I (IgM) | |||||||||||||||
| 30440 | Candida Antibodies IgG,IgA,IgM | 86628 (x3) | Candidiasis is a fungal infection that may cause localized or systemic disease. The severity of infection is broad extending to life threatening. Acute or convalescent titers should be compared. Systemic candidiasis is often characterized by markedly elevated levels of IgG, IgA, and IgM recognizing Candida. However, interpretation of Candida antibody levels is complicated by detection of antibodies in 20-30 percent of healthy individuals, and blunted antibody responses in immuno-compromised patients at risk for systemic candidiasis. Candida antibody results should be considered within the context of clinical findings and results from other relevant laboratory tests, such as Candida antigen detection and/or culture. | ||||||||||||||||
| 30551 | Thyroid Stim Immunoglobulin (TSI) | 84445 | Graves' disease is a classic form of hyperthyroid disease, affecting approximately 0.4 percent of the population of the United States. It is caused by IgG immunoglobulins, collectively known as thyroid stimulating immunoglobulins (TSI). Patients who are candidates for antithyroid drug therapy may not respond to this treatment when TSI levels are markedly elevated. The determination of TSI can also assist in predicting hyperthyroidism in neonates, due to placental transmission of the immunoglobulins from a mother with hyperthyroidism. | ||||||||||||||||
| 30571 | Wellness Panel - Male | CBC with Diff BMP Hepatic Panel Lipid Panel Magnesium Phosphorus NT-proBNP TSH Free T4 TT3 Anti TPO Cystatin-C B12 and Folate Vitamin D PTH Total Bile Acid Aldolase GGT PSA Total Total Testosterone Free Testosterone SHBG Estradiol FSH LH Progestrone DHEA-S Cortisol HbA1c Insulin C-Peptide IgF1 Iron TIBC Ferritin Uric Acid ESR Growth Hormone | |||||||||||||||||
| 30572 | Wellness Panel - Female | CBC with Diff BMP Hepatic Panel Lipid Panel Magnesium Phosphorus NT-proBNP TSH Free T4 TT3 Anti TPO Cystatin-C B12 and Folate Vitamin D PTH Total Bile Acid Aldolase GGT Total Testosterone Free Testosterone SHBG Estradiol FSH LH Progestrone DHEA-S Cortisol HbA1c Insulin C-Peptide IgF1 Iron TIBC Ferritin Uric Acid ESR Growth Hormone | |||||||||||||||||
| 30577 | Anemia Profile | 83540 001 835585025, 85045 | There are many types and causes of anemia, we have created this panel to look at the most frequent causes, such as iron deficiency, B12 deficiency, and the bone marrow's ability to produce red blood cells. Symptoms of anemia symptoms include fatigue, pale skin, weakness, shortness of breath, headache, dizziness, and cold hands and feet. | CBC, Reticulocyte Count, B12, Folate, Ferritin, Iron, TIBC, Transferrin. | |||||||||||||||
| 30578 | General Health Panel | Multi | These tests can yield information about health problems at a stage that has not yet produced any physical signs or symptoms of illness. A wide variety of conditions can be identified including: Liver disorders, diabetes, thyroid disease. Blood tests that indicate abnormalities in your blood system - i.e., you are 'out of normal range' -can alert you to take action. That action might be a visit to a physician or simply a different diet and exercise. In any case, 'knowing' if something is wrong with you -and what is wrong- are the first steps to correction of a poor health condition. A blood test can 'keep you in the know' about your personal health! | CBC, BMP, Hepatic, Lipids, HgA 1 c, TSH, Vit D | |||||||||||||||
| 30742 | Calcitonin | 82308 | Aids in the diagnosis and follow-up of medullary thyroid carcinoma. Aids in the evaluation of multiple endocrine neoplasia type II and familial medullary thyroid carcinoma. | ||||||||||||||||
| 30755 | Allergen, Watermelon (rf329) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Citrullus vulgaris/Citrullus lanatus Source material: Fresh fruit Family: Cucurbitaceae Common Names: Watermelon See also Melon f87. Food A food, which may result in allergy symptoms in sensitized individuals. | ||||||||||||||||
| 30760 | Allergen, Lima Bean (f182) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Phaseolus lunatus Source material: Dried beans Family: Fabaceae (Leguminosae) Common Names: Lima bean, Butter bean, Sugar bean, Haba bean, Pallar bean, Burma bean, Guffin bean, Hibbert bean, Sieva bean, Rangoon bean, Madagascar bean, Paiga, Paigya, Butterpea, Prolific bean, Civet bean | ||||||||||||||||
| 30965 | Topiramate | 80201 | Topiramate is an anticonvulsant used as an adjunctive treatment of partial-onset epilepsy. Therapeutic drug monitoring is useful to optimize dose and avoid toxicity. | ||||||||||||||||
| 31493 | Pregnenolone, LC/MS/MS | 84140 | An ancillary test for congenital adrenal hyperplasia, particularly in situations in which a diagnosis of 21-hydroxylase and 11-hydroxylase deficiency have been ruled out Confirming a diagnosis of 3-beta-hydroxy dehydrogenase deficiency. | ||||||||||||||||
| 31532 | HPV ThinPrep | 87624 | HPV Test can be used as a first-line primary cervical cancer screening test to detect high risk HPV, if positive then it will reflex to genotyping for 16 and 18 and other risk types. Women who test negative for high risk HPV types by the cobas™ HPV Test should be followed up in accordance with the physician's assessment of screening and medical history, other risk factors, and professional guidelines. Women who test positive for HPV genotypes 16 and/or 18 by the cobas™ HPV Test should be referred to colposcopy. Women who test high risk HPV positive and 16/18 negative by the cobas™ HPV Test (12 other HR HPV positive) should be evaluated by cervical cytology to determine the need for referral to colposcopy. | ||||||||||||||||
| 31569 | Collagen Type II Antibodies | 83520 | Anti-collagen II antibodies occur in 22 percent of patients with idiopathic SNHL, 30 percent of patients with sudden deafness and 20 percent of patients with Meniere's disease. Anti-collagen II antibodies also occur in patients with relapsing polychondritis and in rheumatoid arthritis. | ||||||||||||||||
| 31789 | Homocysteine | 83090 | An aid for screening patients suspected of having an inherited disorder of methionine metabolism including: -Cystathionine beta-synthase deficiency (homocystinuria). -Methylenetetrahydrofolate reductase deficiency (MTHFR) and its thermolabile variants. -Methionine synthase deficiency-Cobalamin (Cbl) metabolism: -Combined methyl-Cbl and adenosyl-Cbl deficiencies: Cbl C2, Cbl D2, and Cbl F3 deficiencies. -Methyl-Cbl specific deficiencies: Cbl D-Var1, Cbl E, and Cbl G deficiencies. -Transcobalamin II deficiency. -Adenosylhomocysteinase (AHCY) deficiency. -Glycine N-methyltransferase (GNMT) deficiency. -Methionine adenosyltransferase (MAT) I/III deficiency. | ||||||||||||||||
| 31790 | Homocysteine w/rfx to Vit B12 and Folate | ||||||||||||||||||
| 32114 | Salmonella/Shigella and Campylobacter, Culture | 87045 87427 87449 | SalmonellaSalmonella, Shigella, and Campylobacter are considered gastro-intestinal pathogens. Identification of these organisms is important for treatment and infection control. The Shiga toxin assay detects toxins produced by enterohemorrhagic E. coli and other enteric organisms which have been isolated from patients who have hemorrhagic colitis with or without hemolytic uremic syndrome HUS. | ||||||||||||||||
| 34042 | Diphtheria and Tetanus Antitoxoid | 86648, 86774 | Assessment of an antibody response to tetanus and diphtheria toxoid vaccines. An aid to diagnose immunodeficiency. Diphtheria is an acute, contagious, febrile illness caused by the bacterium Corynebacterium diphtheriae. The disease is classically characterized by a combination of localized inflammation in the upper respiratory tract with the formation of a diphtheric pseudomembrane over the oropharynx, including the tonsils, pharynx, larynx and posterior nasal passages. Corynebacterium diphtheriae produces a potent diphtheria exotoxin which is absorbed systemically and can lead to cardiac failure and paralysis of the diaphragm. | ||||||||||||||||
| 34088 | Chromatin (Nucleosomal) Antibody | 86235 | Chromatin Antibody plays a central role in the autoimmune response in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Approximately 90 percent of patients with SLE have sera that will exhibit reactivity to nucleosomes. | ||||||||||||||||
| 34127 | Mycoplasma pneu. IgG/IgM Abs | 86738 | Screen for recent or past exposure to Mycoplasma pneumoniae | ||||||||||||||||
| 34177 | HTLV-I and HTLV-II, DNA by PCR | 87798 | HTLV-I/II DNA PCR is a highly specific and sensitive method used to detect HTLV-I/II proviral DNA in clinical specimens. In addition, the assay can also differentiate between HTLV-I and HTLV-II infected individuals. | ||||||||||||||||
| 34188 | IgA Subclasses | 82784, 82787 | IgA1 constitutes approximately 80 percent of the circulating IgA. IgA nephropathy is typically due to IgA1. IgA2 predominates in secretions of some mucosal surfaces. IgA2 concentrations may be useful as an index of mucosal pathology. Subclass deficiency is associated with anaphylactic transfusion reactions. | IgA1, IgA2, Total IgA | |||||||||||||||
| 34251 | Bartonella Species Antibodies (IgG, IgM) with Reflex to Titer | 86611 (x4) | Bartonella henselae IgG, IgM; Bartonella quintana IgG, IgM | ||||||||||||||||
| 34256 | Measles Antibody (IgM) | 86765 | Determining acute-phase infection with rubeola (measles) virus. Measles (rubeola) virus is a member of the family paramyxoviridae, which also includes mumps, respiratory syncytial virus, and parainfluenza viruses. Clinical infection with measles virus is characterized by a prodromal phase of high fever, cough, coryza, conjunctivitis, malaise, and Koplik's spots on the buccal mucosa. An erythematous rash then develops behind the ears and over the forehead, spreading to the trunk. | ||||||||||||||||
| 34271 | Ehrlichia chaffeensis (IgG, IgM) | 86666 | Human Monocytic Ehrlichiosis (HME) is a tick-borne infection caused by Ehrlichia chaffeensis. Infections range in severity from asymptomatic to life-threatening, especially in patients who are immunocompromised. | ||||||||||||||||
| 34282 | Herpesvirus 6 Antibodies (IgG, IgM) | 86790, 86790 | HHV-6 is a distinct herpes virus that typically causes a self-limiting illness in patients who are not immunocompromised. In some patients, especially if immumocompromised, HHV-6 can cause febrile convulsions in infants, encephalitis mononucleosis-like symptoms, and hepatitis. | ||||||||||||||||
| 34283 | Ribosomal P Antibody | 83516 | As an adjunct in the evaluation of patients with lupus erythematosus (LE) Aids in the differential diagnosis of neuropsychiatric symptoms in patients with LE, a positive result is consistent with the diagnosis of lupus erythematosus, and may indicate the presence of central nervous system involvement. | ||||||||||||||||
| 34300 | Babesia microti Antibodies (IgG, IgM), IFA | 86753 (x2) | Babesia serological testing is used to diagnose infection by the Babesia tick-borne protozoan. Infection may cause hemolytic anemia. | Babesia microti Antibodies IgG Babesia microti Antibodies IgM | |||||||||||||||
| 34306 | Schistosoma Antibody (IgG), FMI | 86682 | Detection of antibodies to Schistosoma species.Schistosoma species (class Trematoda) are flukes, characterized by their flat, leaf-like morphology as adults, and use of gastropod molluscs (eg, snails) as an intermediate host. The schistosomes are also referred to as the blood flukes, of which there are 5 species known to infect humans: S mansoni, S japonicum, S haematobium, S mekongi, and S intercalatum. Among these S mansoni, S japonicum and S haematobium are most common. | ||||||||||||||||
| 34309 | Strongyloides Antibody (IgG) | 86682 | Strongyloides stercoralis is a parasitic nematode found in tropical and subtropical regions. Because of low larval densities in feces, stool examination is a relatively insensitive diagnostic test; antibody detection offers increased sensitivity. Patients with latent infections who are immunosuppressed or receiving immunosuppressive therapy are at risk of life-threatening hyperinfection. The assay shows 92 percent sensitivity and 100 percent specificity compared to the CDC assay. Some cross reactivity may be observed with filarial and nematode infections. | ||||||||||||||||
| 34336 | Candida Antigen Detection | 86403 | Candidiasis is a fungal infection that may cause localized or systemic disease. The severity of infection is broad extending to life threatening. Acute and convalescent titers should be compared. | ||||||||||||||||
| 34445 | Inhibin B | 82397 | Inhibin B is the major circulating inhibin in males. It is also detectable in women during menstrual cycles, particularly prior to ovulation. The measurement of inhibin B serves as an endocrine marker for monitoring male and female gonadal function. | ||||||||||||||||
| 34458 | IGF Binding Protein-3 (IGFBP-3) | 82397 | Insulin-like growth factor binding proteins bind IGF-I and IGF-II with high affinity but do not bind insulin. Of the 6 distinct IGF binding proteins structurally characterized at this time, IGFBP-3 has been shown to be the major carrier of the IGFs, transporting approximately 95 percent of circulating IGF-I and IGF-II. IGFBP-3 is growth hormone (GH) responsive. Thus, levels are high in acromegaly and low in hypopituitarism, and levels increase in GH-deficient children after GH administration. Other causes of short stature that result in reduced IGFBP-3 levels include poorly controlled diabetes. The IGFBP-3 assay is useful in assessing nutritional status, since IGFBP-3 decreases during both caloric and protein restriction. | ||||||||||||||||
| 34459 | Acetylcholine Receptor Blocking Antibody | 83519 | Myasthenia Gravis (MG) is an autoimmune neuromuscular disorder characterized by muscle weakness, most commonly due to autoantibody-mediated loss of functional acetylcholine receptors (AChR) in the neuromuscular junction. AChR binding autoantibodies are diagnostic of MG, and are found in 85-90 percent of MG patients. AChR blocking autoantibodies prevent inter-action of binding antibodies with the AChR. Fewer than 1 percent of patients have blocking antibodies without binding antibodies. Blocking antibodies are present in about 50 percent of patients with MG, but rare in other conditions. Therefore, blocking antibodies have utility in ruling out a possible false positive binding assay and detecting the rare patient without AChR binding antibodies. | ||||||||||||||||
| 34469 | Hepatitis D Virus RNA, Qualitative, Real-Time PCR | 87798 | Diagnosis of concurrent HDV infection in patients with acute hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection (acute coinfection), chronic HBV infection (chronic coinfection), or acute exacerbation of known chronic HBV infection (HDV superinfection). | ||||||||||||||||
| 34472 | Inhibin A | 86336 | Inhibin A is useful as an indicator of gonadal function, and ovarian response to hMg or to FSH stimulation. Inhibin A, produced by the placenta, is used along with other maternal serum biochemical markers to improve sensitivity of the screen for Down syndrome risk. | ||||||||||||||||
| 34473 | Interleukin-6, IL-6 | 83520 | Evaluation of patients with suspected systemic infection. Evaluation of patients with suspected localized infection, specifically prosthetic joint infection (PJI). Evaluation of patients with suspected chronic inflammatory disorders, such as rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, ankylosing spondylitis, or inflammatory bowel disease. | ||||||||||||||||
| 34478 | PTHrP (PTH-Related Peptide) | 83519 | Part of the evaluation of hypercalcemia, especially in the clinical setting of known or suspected cancer (ie, humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy); Not indicated for screening of humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy | ||||||||||||||||
| 34484 | Tryptase | 83520 | Assessing mast cell activation, which may occur as a result of anaphylaxis or allergen challenge.Assessing patients with systemic mastocytosis or mast cell activation syndrome.Tryptase, a neutral protease, is a dominant protein component of the secretory granules of human mast cells. There are 2 forms of tryptase, designated as alpha and beta, which are encoded by 2 separate genes. Both are expressed as inactive proenzymes. Alpha-protryptase and beta-protryptase are spontaneously released from resting mast cells. The levels of the protrypases reflect the total number of mass cells within the body, but are not an indication of mast cell activation. Beta-protryptase is processed to a mature form, which is stored in granules and released as an active tetramer that is bound to heparin or chondroitin sulfate proteoglycans. In contrast, an amino acid change in alpha-protryptase prevents processing to a mature form. Upon mast cell activation, degranulation releases mature tryptase, which is almost exclusively in the form of beta-tryptase.After anaphylaxis, mast cell granules release tryptase; measurable amounts are found in blood, generally within 30 to 60 minutes. The levels decline under first-order kinetics with half-life of approximately 2 hours. By comparison, histamine (another immunologic mediator released by activated mast cells) is cleared from blood within minutes. Increased serum levels may also occur after allergen challenge or in patients with systemic mastocytosis or mast cell activation syndrome. | ||||||||||||||||
| 34485 | Tumor Necrosis Factor-Alpha, Highly Sensitive | 83520 | Evaluation of patients with suspected systemic infection, in particular infection caused by gram-negative bacteria Evaluation of patients with suspected chronic inflammatory disorders, such as rheumatoid arthritis, inflammatory bowel disease, or ankylosing spondylitis | ||||||||||||||||
| 34604 | Lipoprotein (a) | 83695 | Cardiovascular disease (CVD) risk refinement in patients with moderate or high risk based on conventional risk factors. Lipoprotein (a) (Lp(a)) consists of an LDL particle that is covalently bound to an additional protein, apolipoprotein (a) (Apo(a)). Apo(a) has high-sequence homology with the coagulation factor plasminogen and, like LDL, Lp(a) contains apolipoprotein B100 (ApoB). Thus, Lp(a) is both proatherogenic and prothrombotic. Lp(a) is an independent risk factor for coronary heart disease (CHD), ischemic stroke, and aortic valve stenosis. Lp(a) has been referred to as the most atherogenic lipoprotein. The mechanism of increased risk is unclear but most likely involves progression of atherosclerotic stenosis via intimal deposition of cholesterol and promotion of thrombosis via homology to plasminogen. | ||||||||||||||||
| 34838 | H. pylori Stool Ag, EIA | 87338 | Colonization with H. pylori is associated with increased risk of patients developing gastritis, peptic ulcer disease, and gastric adenocarcinoma. Stool antigen testing provides a sensitive measure of infection including during and after treatment. | ||||||||||||||||
| 34879 | Methylmalonic Acid, Serum | 83921 | Evaluating children with signs and symptoms of methylmalonic acidemia. Evaluating individuals with signs and symptoms associated with a variety of causes of cobalamin (vitamin B12) deficiency | ||||||||||||||||
| 34883 | Estriol, LC/MS/MS, Serum | 82677 | The placenta converts DHEA-S produced by the fetal adrenals to Estriol and other estrogens. Estriol is useful in assessing the fetal adrenals and placenta during pregnancy. More commonly, Estriol is one of the maternal serum biochemical markers used to screen for common chromosomal trisomies, especially Down syndrome | ||||||||||||||||
| 34887 | Interferon-alpha | 83520 | |||||||||||||||||
| 34949 | HIV-1 Genotype | 87900, 87901 | This test is intended for use in conjunction with clinical presentation and other laboratory markers of disease progress for the clinical management of HIV-1 infected patients. The test identifies drug resistance-associated mutations in the HIV-1 protease and reverse transcriptase genes. It can be used to predict antiretroviral drug resistance before initiation of therapy and in patients experiencing virologic failure while on therapy. | ||||||||||||||||
| 34982 | St. Louis Encephalitis Virus Antibodies (IgG, IgM) | 86653 | IgG titers ≥1: 16 suggest exposure (either past or recent), while the presence of IgM indicated recent infection. | ||||||||||||||||
| 35035 | Diabetes Assessment Panel | Multiple | HgA1c, Glucose, C-Peptide, Insulin, HOMA-IRFerritin, GlycoMark, Adiponectin | ||||||||||||||||
| 35078 | Leukemia/Lymphoma Evaluation | 88184, 88185, 88189 | To aid in the diagnosis, lineage assignment, subclassification, and response to treatment of hematologic malignancies. | Initial markers to be evaluated are CD2, CD3, CD4, CD5, CD7, CD8, CD10, CD11C, CD13, CD19, CD20, CD23, CD33, CD34, CD38, CD56, CD64, CD117, HLA-DR, sKAPPA, sLAMBDA, CD45 | |||||||||||||||
| 35079 | Hereditary Hemochromatosis, DNA Analysis | 81256 | Hereditary Hemochromatosis (HH) is an inherited disorder wherein the body accumulates excess iron. This test establishes HH diagnosis in individuals with abnormal iron study results and identifies at-risk family members. | ||||||||||||||||
| 35080 | Shortness of Breath Panel | SOB Panel is a fluorescence immunoassay that empowers physicians with the ability to distinguish between the many causes of shortness of breath. | Quantitative measurements of Myoglobin, CK-MB, Troponin I, B-type Natriuretic Peptide and D-dimer. | ||||||||||||||||
| 35081 | STD Panel | STD Panel is a comprehensive profile includes most common sexually transmitted diseases. | HSV Type 1/2-Specific, IgG - Hepatitis Profile - CT/NG-urine - Syphilis - HIV I/II Antibodies-, Chlamydia, Gonorrhea, Trichomoniasis | ||||||||||||||||
| 35082 | Immunity Assessment Panel | Comprehensive panel confirm whether or not an individual has received specific immunizations and vaccinations against certain diseases, or, in some cases, has previously contracted these illnesses and no longer has an active infection. All test maybe ordered individually as well. | Measles Ab IgG, Mumps Ab IgG, Rubella Ab IgG, Varicella Z Ab IgG, C3, C4, Hep B Surface Ab, Immunoglobolin A/G/M | ||||||||||||||||
| 35084 | Rheumatoid Arthritis Comprehensive Panel | multi | -ANA Profile (ANA IFA with Titer anti-DNA (DS) Ab Qn Sjogren's Antibodies (SS-A, SS-B) Sm and Sm/RNP Antibodies Ribosomal P Scleroderma Antibody (Scl-70) Centromere B Antiboody Jo-1 Antibody RNP Chromatin (Nucleosomal) Antibody -Rheumatoid Factor-ACLs-pANCA cANCA-Vitamin D-Anti-CCP-ESR-CRP-Uric Acid-PTH, Intact-Calcium-Phosphorus | ||||||||||||||||
| 35085 | Female Hormone Assessment | See Individual Tests | TSH, T4, Free T3, Total Testosterone, Total Testosterone Free SHBG, Progesterone, Estradiol, FSH, LH, PTH, Intact, DHEA-S, Cortisol, Serum, IGF-1, Prolactin | ||||||||||||||||
| 35086 | Male Hormone Assessment | See Individual Tests | TSH, T4, FreeT3, Total Testosterone, Total Testosterone Free SHBG, Estradiol, FSH, LH, PTH, Intact, DHEA-S, Cortisol, Serum, IGF-1, PSA, Total, Prolactin | ||||||||||||||||
| 35135 | Haemophilus influenzae Type B Antibody (IgG) | 86684 | Haemophilus influenzae is a gram-negative bacteria that is present in approximately three-quarters of children and adults. In infants and young children, haemophilus influenzae, especially type B, may cause bacteremias and meningitis. In children and older individuals haemophilus influenzae may cause respiratory tract infections. | ||||||||||||||||
| 35176 | Francisella tularensis Antibody, Direct Agglutination (DA) | 86000 | In the presence of compatible symptoms, a Francisella tularensis antibody titer of 1: 160 or greater in an acute specimen supports a presumptive diagnosis of tularemia. However, a titer > or =1: 160 may also reflect past infection. An equivocal titer may be due to cross-reactive antibodies (Brucella, Yersinia, or Proteus OX19), past infection, or very recent infection. A four-fold rise in titer between acute and convalescent sera is required for definitive serologic diagnosis of tularemia. | ||||||||||||||||
| 35417 | Cobalt, Blood | 83018 | Cobalt is part of our diet. Approximately 85 percent of absorbed cobalt is excreted in the urine and the remainder eliminated in stool. Toxicity may occur in select industrial environments. Cobalt is not mined in the United States so primary supplies are imported. | ||||||||||||||||
| 35489 | Hemoglobinopathy Evaluation | 83021, 85014, 85018, 85041 | The detection and proper identification of hemoglobinopathies and thalassemias is an important aspect of the evaluation of patients with anemia, microcytosis and erythrocytosis. | Variants, Red Blood Cell Count, Hemoglobin, Hematocrit, MCV, MCH, RDW | |||||||||||||||
| 35645 | Hepatitis C Viral RNA, Qn, RT PCR | 87522 | Useful in monitoring therapy and/or disease progression. Reportable range is 15 to 100,000,000 IU/mL (1.18-8.00 Log IU/mL). | ||||||||||||||||
| 36167 | Collagen Cross-Linked N-Telopeptide (NTx), Urine | 82523, 82570 | |||||||||||||||||
| 36175 | HTLV-I/II Antibody, with Reflex to Confirmatory Assay | 86790 | Detection of human T-cell lymphotropic virus types I and II (HTLV-I and HTLV-II)-specific IgG antibodies in human serum specimens. | If HTLV-I/II Antibody is positive, HTLV-I/II Antibody, Confirmatory Assay will be performed at an additional charge (CPT code(s): 86689) | |||||||||||||||
| 36178 | Insulin Antibodies | 86337 | Predicting the future development of type 1 diabetes in asymptomatic children, adolescents, and young adults, when used in conjunction with family history, HLA-typing, and other autoantibodies, including GD65S/81596 Glutamic Acid Decarboxylase (GAD65) Antibody Assay, Serum and islet cell antigen 2 (IA-2) antibodies.Differential diagnosis of type 1 versus type 2 diabetes. Evaluating diabetics with insulin resistance in patients with established diabetes (type 1 or type 2). Investigation of hypoglycemia in nondiabetic subjects. | ||||||||||||||||
| 36399 | Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin) | 84252 | Vitamin B2 is involved in metabolism of fats, carbohydrates, and protein. The clinical manifestations of deficiency are non-specific. Clinical manifestations include mucocutaneous lesions of the mouth and skin, corneal vascularization, anemia, and personality changes | ||||||||||||||||
| 36562 | Cryoglobulins, Qual | 82595 | The Cryocrit is primarily intended for following a patient with previously defined and quantitated Cryoglobulins. The Cryocrit may consist of Cryoglobulins, fibrin or mixtures of Cryoglobulins and fibrin. | ||||||||||||||||
| 36565 | Mumps Antibodies, IgM | 86735 | Laboratory diagnosis of activemumps virus infection | ||||||||||||||||
| 36585 | Vitamin K1 | 84597 | Vitamin K - Vitamin K is a required co-factor for the synthesis of factors 2 7 9 and 10 and proteins C and S. Deficiencies of vitamin K lead to bleeding. Coumadin warfarin acts as an anticoagulant because it is a vitamin K antagonist. | ||||||||||||||||
| 36592 | Porphyrins, Fractionated, Quantitative, Random Urine | 84120 | Porphyria is a group of distinct disorders characterized by the abnormal accumulation of porphyrins or porphyrin precursors. Porphyrin Fractionation of Urine is useful in diagnosing porphyrin cutanea tarda, hereditary coproporphyria, and variegate porphyria. | ||||||||||||||||
| 36637 | Oxcarbazepine (Trileptal),S | 80183 | Monitoring serum concentration during oxcarbazepine therapy Assessing compliance Assessing potential toxicity | 10-Hydroxycarbazepine | |||||||||||||||
| 36700 | Insulin, Free (Bioactive) | 83527 | Assessing free (bioactive) insulin concentrations in patients with known or suspected insulin antibodies. Circulating insulin antibodies develop after diabetic patients are treated with exogenous insulin preparations. The presence of insulin antibodies has 2 main consequences: 1. Insulin antibodies will directly bind to insulin, making it unavailable for metabolic activity. 2. Insulin antibodies may adversely affect the binding characteristics of insulin in immunoassays, making reliable quantitation difficult. Free (bioactive) insulin could be measured after polyethylene glycol (PEG) precipitation of insulin antibodies and their bound insulin. If insulin antibodies are not present, the free and total insulin should be equivalent. The laboratory will report results of the total insulin (without PEG precipitation) and the free insulin (with PEG precipitation). | ||||||||||||||||
| 36712 | Sirolimus, LC/MS/MS | 80195 | Sirolimus is an immunosuppressant drug used to prevent organ graft rejection. Therapeutic drug monitoring is used to optimize dose and avoid toxicity. Peak concentrations are reached in 2 hours following oral administration. Elimination half-life in males is approximately 72 hours; in females approximately 61 hours. | ||||||||||||||||
| 36718 | Angiotensin II | 82163 | Angiotensin II is a eight amino acid peptide formed by Angiotensin Converting Enzyme (ACE) cleavage of Angiotensin I. Angiotensin II is metabolized further to Angiotensin III. Angiotensin II release is controlled by Renin, blood pressure, blood volume, sodium balance and by Aldosterone concentration. Levels of Angiotensin II are increased in many types of hypertension. Angiotensin II stimulates the release of Anti-Diuretic Hormone, ACTH, Prolactin, Luteinizing Hormone, Oxytocin and Aldosterone. Angiotensin II increases vasoconstriction and inhibits tubular resorption of sodium, and canincrease endothelial cell growth. | ||||||||||||||||
| 36735 | Immune Complex Detection by C1q Binding | 86332 | Circulating immune complexes may be found without any evident pathology and positive results do not necessarily implicate the immune complex in a disease process. | ||||||||||||||||
| 36741 | Islet Cell Antibody Screen with Reflex to Titer | 86341 | Type 1 diabetes is characterized by lymphocytic cell infiltrate of the pancreatic islets. Measurement of GAD-65, ICA-512, and Insulin Antibody is a highly sensitive means to assess risk and predict onset of Type 1 diabetes. There is a correlation between the number of positive antibodies and the antibody titers versus the severity of the autoimmune process. | If Islet Cell Antibody Screen is positive, Islet Cell Antibody Titer will be performed at an additional charge (CPT code(s): 86341). | |||||||||||||||
| 36742 | Estrogen, Fractionated, LC/MS | 82671 | Estrone; Estradiol, Ultrasensitive; Estriol | ||||||||||||||||
| 36970 | QuantiFERON TB Gold Plus | 86481 | QuantiFERON TB Gold is an indirect test for M. tuberculosis infection (including disease) and is intended for use in conjunction with risk assessment, radiography and other medical and diagnostic evaluations | ||||||||||||||||
| 37054 | Beta hydroxybutyrate | 82010 | In diabetics, the measurement of B-hydroxybutyrate as well as blood glucose is needed for the assessment of the severity of diabetic coma and is essential for the exclusion of hyperosmolar non-ketotic diabetic coma. A specific enzymatic assay for Beta-hydroxybutyrate is extrememly important in the assessment of ketosis. | ||||||||||||||||
| 37093 | Ganglioside GM-1 Antibodies (IgG, IgM), EIA | 83520 | Supporting diagnosis of neurological diseases-primarily motor neuron disease and motor europathies. Peripheral neuropathies are a group of disorders that results from lesions on peripheral nerves. Patients with a peripheral neuropathy can have symptoms of weakness, sensory loss, and/or autonomic dysfunction. The causes of acquired peripheral neuropathies are varied, and include vitamin deficiencies, metabolic abnormalities, infections, malignancies (paraneoplastic disorders), and autoimmune diseases. A subset of the autoimmune-mediated peripheral neuropathies is associated with the presence of circulating autoantibodies that bind to specific gangliosides. Gangliosides are glycosphingolipids that contain sialic acid residues. Although present in the plasma membranes of many cell types, gangliosides are particularly abundant in neural tissue. | ||||||||||||||||
| 37212 | C difficile Toxins A+B, Qualitative, PCR | 87493 | The C. difficile Assay is an in vitro diagnostic test for the direct, qualitative detection of the Clostridium difficile Toxin A gene (tcdA) in unformed stool specimens of patients suspected of having Clostridium difficile-infection (CDI). The C. difficile Assay isintended for use as an aid in diagnosis of CDI. The assay utilizes helicase-dependent amplification (HDA) for the amplificationof a highly-conserved fragment of the Toxin A gene sequence. The C. difficile Assay combines simple sample processing and Helicase-Dependent Amplification (HDA) performed for thedetection of toxigenic Clostridium difficile directly from CDI-suspected diarrheal specimen | ||||||||||||||||
| 37226 | Anti-Mullerian Hormone (AMH), Male | 83520 | Anti-Mullerian Hormone (AMH), Male - AMH/MIS may be used in the detection of the onset of puberty in males, in the differential diagnosis of intersex disorders, cryptorchidism, or anorchidism and in the evaluation of male gonadal function in all ages. | ||||||||||||||||
| 37227 | Anti-Mullerian Hormone (AMH), Female | 83520 | Anti-Mullerian Hormone (AMH), Female - AMH-MIS may be used in the investigation of ovarian reserve since AMH concentrations in adult women reflect the number of small antral and preantral follicles entering the growth phase of their life cycle. These follicles are proportional to the number of primordial follicles that still remain in the ovary, or the ovarian reserve. AMH decreases throughout a woman's reproductive life, which reflects the continuous decline of the oocyte/follicle pool with age and, accordingly, ovarian aging. | ||||||||||||||||
| 37314 | Babesia microti DNA, Real-Time PCR | 87798 | Babesia microti DNA PCR is a highly specific and sensitive method to detect the presence of B. microti DNA in clinical specimens; DNA sequences from the closely related canine pathogen B. gibsoni are not detected by this assay. The diagnosis of Human Babesiosis should not rely solely upon the result of a PCR assay. A positive result should be considered in conjunction with clinical presentation and additional established clinical tests. A negative PCR result indicates the absence of B. microti DNA in the sample tested and does not exclude the diagnosis of disease. | ||||||||||||||||
| 37345 | Legionella pneumophila Antibodies (IgG, IgM), Serotypes 1-6 | 86713 | Evaluation of possible legionellosis (Legionnaires disease, Pontiac fever, extrapulmonary legionella infection caused by Legionella pneumophila). Legionella pneumophila may cause pulmonary disease in both normal and immunocompetent hosts. The disease may occur sporadically in the form of community acquired pneumonia and in epidemics. Pneumonia (often referred to as Legionnaires disease) occurs more frequently in severely immunosuppressed individuals; a milder form of the illness, referred to as Pontiac fever, is more prevalent in normal hosts. Extrapulmonary infection with Legionella pneumophila is rare. Legionnaire's disease, Pontiac fever, and extrapulmonary infection have been collectively referred to as legionellosis. | ||||||||||||||||
| 37358 | Cryoglobulin Screen with Reflex to Cryoglobulin Profile | 82595 | Cryoglobulins are proteins that precipitate from serum at temperatures below 37C. Most precipitate when serum is cooled at 4C, but some gel even at room temperature. The gel or precipitate must redissolve at 37C to be classified as a cryoglobulin. | If cryoglobulin is present, it is identified. Positives are semi-quantitated (as percent cryoglobulin) by cryocrit. When Cryoglobulin Screen is positive, Cryoglobulin Profile (Cryocrit Immunofixation, Cryocrit Immunodiffusion and RheumatoidFactor) will be performed at an additional charge (CPT Code(s): 86334, 86329, 86431). | |||||||||||||||
| 37477 | Coxsackie A Antibodies, Serum | 86658 | Panel currently includes testing against 2, 4, 7, 9, 10, and 16 antigens. Although there is cross-reactivity among the enteroviruses by CF, most healthy people do not have titers >1: 8. Therefore, detectable titers, especially those >1: 32, should be considered diagnostic. Confirmed serodiagnosis is made by demonstration of a four-fold change in titers between acute and convalescent sera. | Coxsackie Antibodies A2, A4, A7, A9, A10, A16 | |||||||||||||||
| 37491 | Lupus (SLE) Panel I | 83516 | Evaluation of patients with signs and symptoms compatible with connective tissue diseases Parietal Cell Antibody. | C3 serum, C4 Serum, Thyroid Peroxidase Antibody, Rheumatoid Factor, SS-A Antibody, SS-B Antibody, SM Antibody, SM/RNP Antibody, SCL-70 Antibody, Ribosomal P Protein Antibody, Reticulin Antibody IgA with Reflex to Titer, Mitochondrial Antibody with Reflex to Titer, Actin (Smooth Muscle) Antibody IgG, DNA Antibody (DS) (Crithidia) with Reflex to Titer, Anti-Nuclear Antibody with Reflex to Titer and Pattern, Striated Antibody with Reflex to Titer, Myocardial Antibody with Reflex to Titer, Gastric Parietal Cell Antibody | |||||||||||||||
| 37520 | Reticulin Antibody (IgA) Screen with Reflex to Titer | 86255 | Investigation of celiac disease (CD) Reticulin antibodies are no longer considered useful in the diagnosis of CD. Mayo Medical Laboratories recommends ordering TTGA / Tissue Transglutaminase (tTG) Antibody, IgA, Serum or EMA / Endomysial Antibodies (IgA), Serum for evaluation of patients suspected of CD or dermatitis herpetiformis. | If Reticulin Antibody (IgA) Screen is Positive, Reticulin (IgA) Titer will be performed at an additional charge (CPT code(s): 86256). | |||||||||||||||
| 37562 | 82542 | Plasma norepinephrine is an independent risk factor in patients with chronic congestive heart failure that relates to subsequent mortality. Norepinephrine is useful in evaluating patients with hypertension. | |||||||||||||||||
| 37801 | Fibrinogen Antigen, Plasma | 85385 | Evaluation of fibrinogen deficiency. Measuring fibrinogen in patients with elevated plasma levels of fibrin degradation products, patients receiving heparin, and in patients with antibodies to thrombin (following surgical use of topical bovine thrombin). Identifiying afibrinogenemia, hypofibrinogenemia and dysfibrinogenemia when ordered in combination with fibrinogen activity. Fibrinogen (clotting factor I) is an essential protein responsible for blood clot formation. In the final step of the coagulation cascade, thrombin converts soluble fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin strands that crosslink and form a clot. | ||||||||||||||||
| 37811 | Hepatitis C Viral RNA, Genotype | 87902 | Hepatitis C genotype is a predictor of response to interferon alfa-2b (non-type 1 are better responders) and to combination therapy with interferon and ribavirin (all types respond but dosage and duration of treatment is dependent on genotype; type 1 (requires extended treatment). | ||||||||||||||||
| 37852 | Zonisamide | 80203 | Zonisamide is commonly used as an adjunct together with other conventional anticonvulsants. As multiple drugs are administered, it is important to monitor its level to optimize therapeutic effects, to assure compliance, and to avoid toxicity. | ||||||||||||||||
| 37923 | Sm Antibody | 86235 | Smith Antibody (Sm) is highly specific for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Smith Antibody is also detected in approximately 15 percent of patients with SLE. Smith Antibody is detected in more than half of young African-American women with SLE. | ||||||||||||||||
| 38226 | Fetal Fibronectin | 82731 | Fetal fibronectin is a protein that performs two roles during pregnancy. It is produced by the placenta and acts as the glue that attaches the placenta to the uterine wall. In late pregnancy, it acts as a lubricant, aiding in the passage of the newborn through the vaginal canal. Amniotic fluid contains fetal fibronectin and when the membranes leak, fetal fibronectin can be detected in a cervicovaginal collection. This can be used as a predictor of pre-term delivery, defined as less than 37 weeks gestation. | ||||||||||||||||
| 38254 | Allergen, Cranberry (rf341) IgE | 36003 | Latin name: Vaccinium oxycoccus Source material: Fresh fruit Family: Ericaceae Common Names: Bog cranberry, Small cranberry, Bigger cranberry, Wild cranberry, Swamp cranberry, Marshwort, Fenne berry, Marsh whortleberry, Bounceberry, Craneberry Synonyms: V. microcarpos, V. palustre, V. hagerupii, Oxycoccus quadripetala, O. palustris, O. hagerupii, O. intermedius, O. microcarpus, O. microcarpos, O. ovalifolius, O. oxycoccos, O. quadripetalus | ||||||||||||||||
| 38267 | Allergen, Catfish (f369) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Ictalurus punctatus Source material: Fillet, without skin Family: Ictaluridae | ||||||||||||||||
| 38476 | Allergen, Amoxicillin (c6) IgE | 86003 | Test is used for detection of IgE sensitization to the major allergenic determinant of amoxicillin, with potential cross-reactivity to other penicillins. | ||||||||||||||||
| 38482 | Allergen, Black Olive (f342) IgE | 86003 | Latin name: Olea europaea Source material: Fresh fruit (black) Family: Oleaceae Common Names: Olive | ||||||||||||||||
| 38683 | TRAb (TSH Receptor Binding Antibody) | 83520 | TRAb (TSH Receptor Binding Antibody) - Measurement of TRAb is used to diagnose and manage Graves' disease, neonatal hypothyroidism, and postpartum thyroid dysfunction. TRAb, which measures the ability of antibodies to inhibit TSH binding to its receptor, reflects the presence of either or both the stimulatory and inhibitory immunoglobulin classes. | ||||||||||||||||
| 38944 | Protein Electrophoresis, Total Protein, 24 Hour Urine and Immunofixation | 82570, 84156, 84166, 86335 | Urine protein electrophoresis alone is not considered an adequate screening for monoclonal gammopathies. If a discrete electrophoresis band is identified, the laboratory will evaluate the urine protein electrophoresis and, if necessary, perform immunofixation at an additional charge | Creatinine If monoclonal band is detected, immunofixation will be performed at an additional charge (CPT code(s): 86335). | |||||||||||||||
| 39000 | SARS Covid 2 IgG/IgM | U0002 | The SARS-CoV-2 IgM test specifically detects the presence/ absence of COVID-19- specific IgM antibodies in the blood of a patient. The SARS-CoV-2 IgG test specifically detects the presence/ absence of COVID-19- specific IgG antibodies in the blood of a patient. A positive test for either SARS-CoV-2 IgM or SARS-COV-2 IgG provides a strong evidence of the infection of a patient with the SARS-CoV-2 virus. A positive test for SARS CoV-2 IgM indicates that the infection was recent. A positive test for SARS CoV-2 IgG indicates that the patient had an infection for at least 3 weeks or more. Since most patients do not know the exact time when they contracted the virus, the combining both IgM and IgG tests provides a much higher test sensitivity and test specificity. | ||||||||||||||||
| 39006 | Coronavirus Diagnostic Panel | TBA | SARS-CoV-2 RNA PCRSARS-CoV-2 IgGSARS-CoV-2 IgM | ||||||||||||||||
| 39020 | SARS Covid Spike Antibody | 86769 | The new Anti-SARS-CoV-2 S test can quantitatively measure the level of antibodies against SARS-CoV-2 in patients who have been exposed to the virus. The test targets antibodies against the spike protein. This is the focus of vaccines in development and convalescent plasma therapy. | ||||||||||||||||
| 39350 | Drug Monitoring, Barbiturates, Screen, Urine | Drug Monitoring, Barbiturates, Screen, Urine - The barbiturate class of drugs are traditionally classified as sedatives and central nervous system depressants. Their principle uses are to calm the patient, produce drowsiness, and/or promote sleep. The test is a screening assay using a homogeneous enzyme immunoassay method of analysis. Therapeutic urine drug monitoring of the barbiturates is important for ensuring compliance to treatment strategies, as well as ensuring non-diversion for illicit purposes. Urine or oral fluid are the specimens of choice for routine monitoring of patients taking prescription drugs. Use of serum/plasma should be limited to anuretic patients, or where a patient's clinical appearance does not coincide with their prescribed medications. No single monitoring approach provides adequate information about the pattern or dose of patient drug use. Safest prescribing habits should include a combination of tools and laboratory test results to correctly detect drug use patterns. Urine drug test results equal to or greater than cutoff are reported as positive and results less than cutoff are reported as negative. | |||||||||||||||||
| 39369 | Drug Monitoring, Barbiturates, with Confirmation, Urine | 80307 | Drug Monitoring, Barbiturates, with Confirmation, Urine - The barbiturate class of drugs are traditionally classified as sedatives and central nervous system depressants. Their principle uses are to calm the patient, produce drowsiness, and/or promote sleep. The test is a screening assay using a homogeneous enzyme immunoassay method of analysis. Presumptive positive screen results are reflexed to a more specific and sensitive liquid chromatography mass spectroscopy (LC/MS/MS) test. Therapeutic urine drug monitoring of the barbiturates is important for ensuring compliance to treatment strategies, as well as ensuring non-diversion for illicit purposes. Urine or oral fluid are the specimens of choice for routine monitoring of patients taking prescription drugs. Use of serum/plasma should be limited to anuretic patients, or where a patient's clinical appearance does not coincide with their prescribed medications. No single monitoring approach provides adequate information about the pattern or dose of patient drug use. Safest prescribing habits should include a combination of tools and laboratory test results to correctly detect drug use patterns. Urine drug test results equal to or greater than cutoff are reported as positive and results less than cutoff are reported as negative. Quantitative values cannot be used to assess the drug dose, because the drug is extensively metabolized and excreted in the urine. | ||||||||||||||||
| 39433 | SARS-CoV-2 RNA, RT-PCR | 87798 | Qualitative Result will be Positive / Negative | ||||||||||||||||
| 39457 | Protein C and Protein S, Functional | 85303, 85306 | This panel screens for two common deficiencies associated with thrombotic disease. If a deficiency is identified, additional testing is recommended for classification | Protein C Activity, Protein S Activity | |||||||||||||||
| 39498 | Allergen, Allspice (f339) IgE | 86003 | Dried unripe berries from a tropical evergreen tree of the myrtle family (Myrtaceae) are the source of the highly aromatic spice allspice. Ground allspice, or the whole berry, is widely used in a variety of food products, such as pickles, ketchup, seafood seasoning, curry powder, formulations for sausages, pickled meats and fish products, in sweet goods baking, puddings and fruit preparations. Allspice is also used in herbal therapies and as a perfume for soaps. Hot allspice tea has been used for colds, menstrual cramps and upset stomachs. Allspice oil contains the chemical eugenol, which may be used to promote digestive enzyme activity and as a pain reliever. Dentists sometimes use eugenol as a local anesthetic for teeth and gums. | ||||||||||||||||
| 39515 | Culture, Fungus, Skin, Hair or Nails | 87101 | Fungi can infect the hair, skin, and nails. Early diagnosis can lead to effective treatment. | Fungus, Skin, Hair or Nails | |||||||||||||||
| 39588 | T and B Cells, Total | 86355, 86359 | T-cell deficiency is frequently associated with chronic, recurrent mucocutaneous candidiasis. B-cell deficiency is frequently associated with recurrent, complicated or severe pyrogenic infections. Deficiencies of T and B cells are observed in many medical conditions. Often, more specific evaluations are required after a deficiency is identified. | Lymphocytes, absolute; CD19, absolute; CD19 percentage; CD3, absolute; CD3 percentage | |||||||||||||||
| 39626 | Catecholamines, Fractionated and VMA, 24-Hr Urine with Creatinine | 82384, 82570, 84585 | Catecholamines include the hormones epinephrine, norepinephrine, and dopamine. Catecholamines, along with VMA, are produced in chromaffin cell tumors, pheochromocytoma, ganglioneuroma, and neuroblastoma. Symptoms of pheochromocytomas include episodic hypertension, headaches, sweating, heart palpitations, and anxiety. | Creatinine, Norepinephrine, Epinephrine, Dopamine, and Total Catecholamines (calculated), VMA | |||||||||||||||
| 39627 | Catecholamines, Fractionated, 24-Hour Urine with Creatinine | 82384 | The three catecholamines (norepinephrine, epinephrine and dopamine) are the principal secretory products of neural tissue. Clinically, the measurement of circulating catecholamines is valuable in the diagnosis of catecholamine secreting tumors associated chiefly with hypertension (pheochromocytomas, neuroblastomas and gangliomas) and with the evaluation of orthostatic hypotension. | Dopamine, Epinephrine, Norepinephrine, Total Catecholamines (calculated) | |||||||||||||||
| 40083 | Factor VIII Inhibitor Panel | 85240, 85335 | The presence of alloantibodies against factor VIII activity is a complication of treatment in hemophilia A, while the presence of autoantibodies may develop spontaneously in patients with acquired Factor VIII-C deficiency. The presence of Factor VIII inhibitor may lead to the neutralization (inactivation) of transfused or endogenous Factor VIII activity. The detection and magnitude of Factor VIII inhibitor is of great importance in the care of these patients. Factor VIII inhibitor EIA assay provides a quick method for the detection of Factor VIII inhibitor with less sample volume. | Factor VIII Inhibitor, EIA Screen and Factor VIII Activity, Clotting If Factor VIII Inhibitor, EIA Screen is positive, the Nijmegen Assay will be performed at an additional charge (CPT code(s): 85335) | |||||||||||||||
| 40085 | HIV-1 RNA, Quantitative, Real-Time PCR | 87536 | This test is intended for use in conjunction with clinical presentation and other laboratory markers of disease progress for the clinical management of HIV-1 infected patients. The test can be used to assess patient prognosis by measuring the baseline HIV-1 RNA level or to monitor the effects of antiretroviral therapy by measuring changes in EDTA plasma HIV-1 RNA levels during the course of antiretroviral treatment. | HIV Viral Load, Viral Load, HIV, HIV | |||||||||||||||
| 58315 | ThinPrep Pap | Liquid Based Pap Testing is intended for use in the screening and detection of cervical cancer, pre-cancerous lesions, atypical cells and all other cytologic categories as defined by The Bethesda System for Reporting Results of Cervical Cytology. Pap screening is not reliable for the detection of endometrial cancer. | |||||||||||||||||
| 58689 | Complement, Alternate Pathway (AH50), Functional | 86161 | The complement alternate pathway (AH50) assay is a screening test for complement abnormalities in the alternative pathway. The alternate pathway shares C3 and C5-C9 components, but has unique early complement components designated factors D, B, and P, as well as regulatory factors H and I. This pathway is activated by microbial polysaccharides and does not require immune complex formation. Patients with disseminated infections with pyogenic bacteria in the presence of a normal CH50 may have an absent AH50 due to hereditary or acquired deficiencies of the alternate pathway. Patients with deficiencies in the alternate pathway factors (D, B, P, H, and I) or late complement components (C3, C5-C9) are unusually susceptible to recurrent neisserial meningitis. The use of the CH50 and AH50 assays allow identification of the specific pathway abnormality. | ||||||||||||||||
| 59245 | N-Telopeptide, Serum | 82523 | Serum N-Telopeptide (NTx) levels may be used in predicting skeletal response (bone mineral density) to antiresorptive therapy and in monitoring bone resorption changes following initiation of antiresorptive therapy. Prior to initiating antiresorptive therapy, a serum NTx level is used to determine the probability for a decrease in bone mineral density (BMD) after one year in postmenopausal women treated with hormonal antiresorptive therapy relative to those treated with calcium supplementation. | ||||||||||||||||
| 60901 | Complement C3 Serum | ||||||||||||||||||
| 60902 | Complement C4 Serum | ||||||||||||||||||
| 70007 | Tacrolimus | 80197 | Clinical Significance: Tacrolimus is an immunosuppressant drug which has been shown to be effective for the treatment of rejection following transplantation. | ||||||||||||||||
| 70073 | Olanzapine | 80299 | Olanzapine (Zyprexa) is indicated for the management of psychotic disorders | ||||||||||||||||
| 70107 | Carnitine | 82379 | Serum carnitine analysis is useful in the diagnosis and monitoring of patients with carnitine deficiency (either primary or secondary). Primary carnitine deficiency is an autosomal recessively inherited genetic condition that affects carnitine uptake by cells and tissues through a defect in the plasma membrane carnitine transporter. Secondary carnitine deficiency can be seen in some disease states or in patients on carnitine-poor diets, but is also seen in a number of metabolic disorders. In these disorders, carnitine complexes with the accumulated substrate of the blocked metabolic step, and the resulting acylcarnitine ester is excreted in the urine, leading to a depletion of carnitine in the patient. | ||||||||||||||||
| 70154 | Osteoporosis Panel | See Individual Tests | CBC, CMP, Vitamin D, TSH, SPEP, PTH, B12 & Folate, Phosphorus, Magnesium | ||||||||||||||||
| 70155 | Osteoporosis Follow up | See Individual Tests | CBC, CMP, Vit D | ||||||||||||||||
| 70156 | Rheumatoid Arthritis Screen PNL II | See Individual Tests | -CBC-CMP-RF-CCP-ESR-CRP-Hepatitis Panel (Hepatitis B Core IgM Antibody, Hepatitis B Surface Antigen Hepatitis C Antibody Hepatitis A IgM Antibody) -TSH-HLA B27-C3&C4-CH50-Combs-RPR-ANA Screen, If the ANA IA or IFA Screen is positive, it will reflex to Pattern & titer and the following antibodies: -APLs (Anticardiolipin IgA; Anticardiolipin IgG; Anticardiolipin IgM; Beta-2-Glycoprotein I Antibodies IgA, Qn; Beta-2-Glycoprotein I Antibodies IgG, Qn; Beta-2-Glycoprotein I Antibodies IgM, Qn) -dsDNA Ab, Anti-SSA Ab, Anti-SSB Ab, Smith Ab, Sm RNP Ab, Ribosomal P Ab, Scl-70 Ab, Centromere B Ab, Jo-1 Ab, RNP Ab, Chromatin Ab. | ||||||||||||||||
| 70157 | Rheumatoid Arthritis PNL I | See Individual Tests | -CBC-CMP-RF-CCP-ESR-CRP-Hepatitis Panel (Hepatitis B Core IgM Antibody, Hepatitis B Surface Antigen Hepatitis C Antibody Hepatitis A IgM Antibody)-TSH-HLA B27-C3&C4-CH50-Combs-RPR-ANA Screen, ANA IA & IFA Screen is positive with reflex to Pattern & titer and the following antibodies: -APLs (Anticardiolipin IgA; Anticardiolipin IgG; Anticardiolipin IgM; Beta-2-Glycoprotein I Antibodies IgA, Qn; Beta-2-Glycoprotein I Antibodies IgG, Qn; Beta-2-Glycoprotein I Antibodies IgM, Qn) -dsDNA Ab, Anti-SSA Ab, Anti-SSB Ab, Smith Ab, Sm RNP Ab, Ribosomal P Ab, Scl-70 Ab, Centromere B Ab, Jo-1 Ab, RNP Ab, Chromatin Ab. | ||||||||||||||||
| 70158 | RA Follow UP PNL | See Individual Tests | CBC, CMP , CRP , ESR | ||||||||||||||||
| 70159 | ANCA Screen with MPO and PR3 | 86021 (x3) | Testing for anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (P-ANCA and/or C-ANCA) has been found to be useful in establishing the diagnosis of suspected vascular diseases, inflammatory bowel disease, as well as other autoimmune diseases. | ANCA Screen Myeloperoxidase Ab (MPO), Proteinase-3 Antibody with Reflex to ANCA Titer, If ANCA Screen is positive, then C-ANCA Titer and/or P-ANCA Titer and/or atypical P-ANCA Titer will be performed at an additional charge (CPT code(s): 86021 for each titer performed). ANCA Screen is composed of MPO and PR3 | |||||||||||||||
| 70161 | LUPUS PANEL II | See Individual Tests | -ANA IFA, Titer -ANA Profile (dsDNA Ab, Anti-SSA Ab, Anti-SSB Ab, Smith Ab, Sm RNP Ab, Ribosomal P Ab, Scl-70 Ab, Centromere B Ab, Jo-1 Ab, RNP Ab, Chromatin Ab.) -APLs (Anticardiolipin IgA; Anticardiolipin IgG; Anticardiolipin IgM; Beta-2-Glycoprotein I Antibodies IgA, Qn; Beta-2-Glycoprotein I Antibodies IgG, Qn; Beta-2-Glycoprotein I Antibodies IgM, Qn)-UA and protein/creatinine Ratio -C3 and C4-CH50-Combs | ||||||||||||||||
| 70162 | Lupus Monitoring Panel | See Individual Tests | CBC with Diff, CMP, ESR, CRP, C3, C4, CH50, DSDNA | ||||||||||||||||
| 70163 | NSAID Monitoring Panel | See Individual Tests | CBC with Diff, CMP | ||||||||||||||||
| 70164 | Uveitis Panel | See Individual Tests | Uveitis Panel (70164 ): -ANCA panel -70159- ANA Screen with Reflex to Comprehensive Panel-ANA Screen, if the ANA IA or IFA Screen is positive, it will reflex to Pattern & titer and the following antibodies: -APLs (Anticardiolipin IgA; Anticardiolipin IgG; Anticardiolipin IgM; Beta-2-Glycoprotein I Antibodies IgA, Qn; Beta-2-Glycoprotein I Antibodies IgG, Qn; Beta-2-Glycoprotein I Antibodies IgM, Qn) -dsDNA Ab, Anti-SSA Ab, Anti-SSB Ab, Smith Ab, Sm RNP Ab, Ribosomal P Ab, Scl-70 Ab, Centromere B Ab, Jo-1 Ab, RNP Ab, Chromatin Ab. -SSA/SSB-RF-CCP-HLAB27 -Angiotensin Converting Enzyme Level -HSV 1-2 IgG-CMV IgG/IgM -Toxoplasma IgG/IgM -RPR with reflex FTABs confirmation -QTF Gold -Bartonella Henselae IFA titers | ||||||||||||||||
| 70195 | Testosterone, Free and Total | 84402, 84403 | This assay is the alternative, second-level test for suspected increases or decreases in physiologically active testosterone (preferred: TTBS / Testosterone, Total and Bioavailable, Serum); indications: -Assessment of androgen status in cases with suspected or known sex hormone-binding globulin-binding abnormalities-Assessment of functional circulating testosterone in early pubertal boys and older men-Assessment of functional circulating testosterone in women with symptoms or signs of hyperandrogenism, but normal total testosterone levels-Monitoring of testosterone therapy or antiandrogen therapy in older men and in females | Testosterone, Free and Total | |||||||||||||||
| 70196 | Testosterone, F and T w SHBG | 84402, 84403, 84270 | This assay is the alternative, second-level test for suspected increases or decreases in physiologically active testosterone (preferred: TTBS / Testosterone, Total and Bioavailable, Serum); indications: -Assessment of androgen status in cases with suspected or known sex hormone-binding globulin-binding abnormalities-Assessment of functional circulating testosterone in early pubertal boys and older men-Assessment of functional circulating testosterone in women with symptoms or signs of hyperandrogenism, but normal totaltestosterone levels-Monitoring of testosterone therapy or antiandrogen therapy in older men and in females | Separate serum from cells within 45 minutes of venipuncture. | |||||||||||||||
| 80000 | Pregnancy Test, Urine | 81025 | This test is specific for hCG beta subunit and offers sensitivity necessary to detect pregnancy as early as ten days post conception | ||||||||||||||||
| 90257 | STRATIFY JCV(TM) Antibody with Reflex to Inhibition Assay | 86711 | The JC Virus (JCV) is associated with Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy (PML). Detection of antibodies to JCV in serum or plasma is a reliable indicator of exposure to JCV. The analytical performance characteristics were determined for multiple sclerosis patients. | If the JCV Antibody result is, INDETERMINATE, STRATIFY JCV™ Antibody Inhibition Assay will be performed at an additional charge (CPT code(s): 86711). | |||||||||||||||
| 90271 | von Willebrand Screen | 85240, 85245, 85246, 85730 | Detection of deficiency or abnormality of von Willebrand factor and related deficiency of factor VIII coagulant activity | Partial Thromboplastin Time, Activated; Factor VIII Activity, Clotting; von Willebrand Factor Antigen; Ristocetin Cofactor | |||||||||||||||
| 90349 | Syphilis Antibody Reflex | 86592 | Identification of Treponema pallidum antibodies may aid in the diagnosis of syphilis. | If T. pallidum Antibody is equivocal or positive, then RPR Screen with Reflex to Titer will be performed at an additional charge (CPT code(s): 86592). If RPR Screen is reactive, then RPR titer will be performed at an additional charge (CPT code(s): 86593) | |||||||||||||||
| 90363 | B-cell Receptor IGK Gene Rearrangement, PCR | 81264, 84999 | This assay, which interrogates the immunoglobulin kappa light chain gene (IGK) by a PCR method based on the BIOMED-2 consensus, is useful for establishing clonality of B-cell lymphoid neoplasms and in the identification of minimal residual disease or early recurrence in patients with a previous diagnosis of a B-cell neoplasm. It can be used in association with the immunoglobulin heavy chain (IGH PCR assay test code 90362), since false-negative results can occur in up to 10-15 percent of B-cell malignancies when testing IGK only. | Test includes pathologist interpretation | |||||||||||||||
| 90367 | Leptin | 82397 | Leptin - Leptin is an adipocyte-derived hormone that is essential for normal body weight regulation. Leptin production is under neuroendocrine control so that serum concentrations vary directly with the amount of triglycerides stored in adipose tissue depots. | ||||||||||||||||
| 90379 | Total Glutathione | 82978 | Glutathione is a tripeptide formed by a peptide linkage between the amine group of cysteine linked to glycine and the carboxyl group of the glutamate side-chain. It is an abundant cellular reducing agent, whose major biological function is mitigating oxidative damage to biological macromolecules. Glutathione is also important in the metabolism and excretion of xenobiotic compounds. Glutathione is consumed to maintain cells in a reducedcondition. Consequently, glutathione levels in patient samples are expected to be diminished in disease states where oxygen reactive species are involved, such as rheumatoid arthritis and atherosclerosis. Low glutathione levels have been linked to reduced dopamine production in neurons, which suggests a relationship to dopamine based neurological disorders such as Parkinson's disease. High levels of glutathione have been linked to chemotherapy resistance in cancer treatments. | ||||||||||||||||
| 90382 | Aquaporin-4 (AQP4) Antibody (NMO-IgG) | 83516 | Confirm suspected cases of NMO and assist in making a differential diagnosis and identifying the cause of MS-like symptoms in the patient. An accurate diagnosis will further help predict disease course and provide direction in treatment options. | ||||||||||||||||
| 90389 | Cryptosporidium Antigen, EIA | 87015, 87272 | Cryptosporidium is the causative agent of cryptosporidiosis. Symptoms include diarrhea, abdominal pain and respiratory problems lasting from several days to more than a month and often leading to persistant infection or death. | ||||||||||||||||
| 90417 | Culture, Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus Screen | 87081 | MRSA is a major cause of nosocomial and life threatening infections. Infections with MRSA have been associated with a significantly high morbidity, mortality and cost. Selection of these organisms has been greatest in the healthcare setting. However, MRSA has also become more prevalent in the community. To control the transmission of MRSA, the Society for Healthcare Epidemiology of America (SHEA) has recommended guidelines, which include an active surveillance to identify potential reservoirs and a rigorous infection control program to control thespread of MRSA. Rapid, accurate, and cost-effective screening tests for MRSA colonization are needed in order to reduce the economic burden of this pathogen. The MRSA Culture Screen test detects colonization with Methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) in patients and can be used as a tool in infection prevention and control efforts. Early detection of this pathogen can accelerate the isolation process, thus minimizing the spread of infections. | ||||||||||||||||
| 90418 | Alcohol, EtG, Qualtitative, Random Urine | 80320 (HCPCS: G6040) | A positive urine alcohol is only indicative of recent use and cannot be used to determine impairment. This test should be restricted to monitoring patients in drug treatment programs where any alcohol use is prohibited. | ||||||||||||||||
| 90567 | Dihydrotestosterone, LC/MS/MS | 80327 | DHT is a potent androgen derived from testosterone via 5-Alpha-Reductase activity. 5-Alpha-Reductase deficiency results in incompletely virilized males (phenotypic females). This diagnosis is supported by an elevated ratio of testosterone to DHT. | ||||||||||||||||
| 90649 | ApoE Genotype | 81401 | This test determines the subtypes of APOE which will aid in the risk assessment of Corornary Heart Disease (CHD) and Hyperlipoproteinemia. | ||||||||||||||||
| 90665 | FISH, Myeloproliferative Neoplasms (Eosinophilia) | 88271 (x7), 88275 (x3) | This FISH panel includes probes that target the PDGFRA (4q12), PDGFRB (5q33.1) and FGFR1 (8p11-12) loci. The probes included in this panel are constructed using the breakapart strategy (fusion signal indicates an intact locus). This allows detection of rearrangements of PDGFRA, PDGFRB, and FGFR1 that result from translocations involving various chromosome regions (usually tyrosine kinase coding genes). Fusion of these receptors with a tyrosine kinase coding gene leads to kinase activation. Rearrangements of PDGFRA, PDGFRB, and FGFR1 are found in a rare group of stem cell myeloid and lymphoid neoplasms that have in common the presence of eosinophilia and the involvement of genes that code for a tyrosine kinase. As such, detection of these rearrangements will help to properly diagnose and follow up of these patients. Furthermore, patients with activated tyrosine kinases are good candidates for tyrosine kinase inhibitors. | ||||||||||||||||
| 90801 | Trichomonas vaginalis, PCR | 87661 | This test is used to detect Trichomonas vaginalis in clinical specimens. The test has greater analytical sensitivity than culture methods | ||||||||||||||||
| 90849 | Herpes Simplex Virus 1/2 Antibody (IgM), IFA with Reflex to Titer | 86695, 86696 | HSV IgM is detectable in serum from >90 percent of patients with primary HSV infection; however, HSV IgM is also found in 30 percent of patients with reactivated HSV. | If HSV 1 IgM screen is positive, HSV 1 IgM Titer will be performed at an additional charge (CPT code(s): 86695). If HSV 2 IgM Screen is positive, HSV 2 IgM Titer will be performed at an additional charge (CPT code(s): 86696). | |||||||||||||||
| 90854 | Clorazepate (Tranxene) | 80346 | Orally administered clorazepate is rapidly decarboxylated to its metabolite, nordiazepam. There is essentially no circulating patent drug. Nordiazepam elimination half-life is about 40 to 50 hours. Plasma levels of nordiazepam increase proportionally with clorazepate dose and show moderate accumulation with repeated administration. | ||||||||||||||||
| 90879 | Factor VIII Antigen | 85244 | An ELISA for Factor VIII antigen may be used in conjunction with the functional assays in the assessment of Factor VIII replacement therapies, assessment of carrier status, as well as to distinguish those patients that may be deemed cross-reactive material (CRM) positive. | ||||||||||||||||
| 90933 | ThinPrep Pap with HPV | 88175 | |||||||||||||||||
| 90962 | B-cell Receptor IGH Gene Rearrangement, PCR | 81261, 84999 (HCPCS: G0452) | This assay, which interrogates the immunoglobulin heavy chain gene (IGH) by a PCR method based on the BIOMED-2 consensus, is useful for establishing clonality of B-cell lymphoid neoplasms and in the identification of minimal residual disease or early recurrence in patients with a previous diagnosis of a B-cell neoplasm. It can be used in association with the immunoglobulin kappa light chain (IGK test code 90363, or IGH/IGK combo test code 91635), since false-negative results can occur in up to 10-20 percent of B-cell malignancies when testing for IGH only. The highest rates of non-detectable IGH clonal rearrangements are in IGVH mutated B-cell neoplasms such as follicular lymphoma and plasma cell neoplasms and in B-lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphomadue to absent or incomplete B-cell receptor rearrangements. | Test includes pathologist interpretation | |||||||||||||||
| 90963 | T3, Reverse Serum | 84482 | 3,3',5'-Triiodothyronine (reverse T3, rT3) is, along with 3,3,5'-Triiodothyronine (T3) a deiodinated metabolite of thyroxine (T4), the major secretory product of the thyroid gland and is secreted into the bloodstream. Unlike T3, however, rT3 is thought to be metabolically inert. The process of 5'-monodeiodination that converts T4 to T3, and rT3 to diiodothyronine (DTT) is inhibited in a wide variety of conditions, collectively referred to as nonthyroidal illnesses (NTI) or the 'euthyroid sick' state. These conditions include fasting, malnutrition, poorly controlled diabetes mellitus, trauma, surgery, and systemic illness. Consequently, in patients with NTI the serum T3 level typically decreases, and the rT3 often, but not always, increases. | ||||||||||||||||
| 91001 | Omega-3 and -6 Fatty Acids | 82542 | Fats are important sources of energy for tissues and for the function and integrity of cellular membranes. Deficiencies are commonly caused by inadequate dietary intake of lipids due to an unbalanced diet, long-term parenteral nutrition, or by intestinal malabsorption. Linoleic acid, an omega-6 fatty acid, and alpha-linolenic acid, an omega-3 fatty acid, are considered essential fatty acids in that they cannot be made by the body and are essential components of the diet.The major clinical manifestations associated with essential fatty acid deficiency (EFAD) include dermatitis, increased water permeability of the skin, increased susceptibility to infection, and impaired wound healing. Biochemical normalities may be detected before the onset of recognizable clinical manifestations. EFAD can be detected by diminished levels of the essential fatty acids linoleic acid and alpha-linolenic acid, as well as by increases in the triene: tetraene ratio.Excess dietary fatty acids have been linked to the onset of cardiovascular disease. Elevated levels of linoleic acid can contribute to overproduction of the | ||||||||||||||||
| 91029 | Vitamin B3 | 84591 | The amino acid tryptophan can be metabolically converted into niacin. Vitamin B3, also called niacin and nicotinic acid, is a water soluble B vitamin. It plays a role in releasing energy from carbohydrates and fats, metabolizes proteins, and assists in the production of some hormones and in the formation of red blood cells. Niacin is also thought to prevent and treat diabetes, improve circulation (as inositol hexaniacinate); and relieve arthritis.Niacin deficiency causes pellagra. Other forms of niacin may help prevent the development of childhood diabetes (Type I) in high risk children. | ||||||||||||||||
| 91031 | Soluble Transferrin Receptor | 84238 | Soluble Transferrin Receptor (sTFR) values can be within normal limits over a broad range of body iron stores and is elevated only when there is functional (i.e. cellular) iron deficiency. It is usually not affected by chronic disease states, sTFR levels are about 6 percent higher in people in high altitudes (above 5200 ft/1600 m) and in African-Americans. Reference value may not apply to pregnant females and recent or frequent blood donors. | ||||||||||||||||
| 91032 | Methylmalonic Acid, Urine | 82570, 83921 | Methylmalonic Acid (MMA) is useful to diagnose and monitor Vitamin B12 (cobalamin) deficiency, and to diagnose and monitor patients with methylmalonic acidemia. | Creatinine | |||||||||||||||
| 91065 | BCR-ABL1 Gene Rearrangement, Quantitative, PCR | BCR-ABL1 Gene Rearrangement, Quantitative, PCR - The Philadelphia Chromosome (Ph) is a translocation between chromosome 9 and 22 t(9; 22) (q34; Q11) that is found in more than 90-95 percent of chronic myeloid leukemia CML, and in 20-25 percent of adult and 2-10 percent of childhood acute lymphoblastic leukemia ALL. In CML, most translocations fall in the major breakpoint cluster region of the BCR gene, and result in either of two BCR-ABL1 mRNA molecules having an e13a2 junction fusion of BCR exon 13 with ABL1 exon 2 or an e14a2 junction fusion of BCR exon 14 with ABL1 exon 2 that encodes the p210 BCR-ABL1 fusion protein. In all, about two thirds of the BCR breakpoints fall in the minor breakpoint cluster region of the BCR gene, and the hybrid BCR-ABL1 transcript contains an e1a2 junction fusion of BCR exon1 with AB11 exon2 which is translated as a p190 BCR-ABL1 fusion protein. Quantitative measurement of the changes of BCR-AB1 expression levels over time is important to monitor disease progression and response to targeted therapies. This test is a reverse-transcription pcr-based quantitative assay which detects these two major BCR-AB11 mRNA transcripts produced by the t9; 22 chromosomal translocation p210 and p190. BCR-ABL1 transcript levels are expressed as a percent ratio of BCR-ABL1 to the normalizing ABL1 transcript levels. For the p210 transcript associated with CML, quantitation is further adjusted to the international scale IS to allow comparison with other IS-compliant BCR-ABL1 assays. Optimal therapy in CML is associated with transcript levels below the major molecular response MMR milestone indicated by a BCR-ABL1/ABL1 percent is below 0.1. | |||||||||||||||||
| 91068 | Brucella Antibodies (IgG, IgM), EIA with Reflex to Agglutination | 86622 (x2) | Detection of antibodies to Brucella sp. Usually indicates recent or past exposure to the organism. | If Brucella IgM is Greater or Equal to 1.10, Brucella Antibody, Agglutination will be performed at an additional charge (CPT code(s): 86622). | |||||||||||||||
| 91238 | Transforming Growth Factor Beta 1 TGF-Beta 1 | 83520 | Transforming Growth Factor (TGF) plays a crucial role in tissue regeneration, cell differentiation, embryonic development, and regulation of the immune system. Transforming growth factor beta is found in hematopoietic (blood-forming) tissue and initiates a signaling pathway that suppresses the early development of cancer cells. It enhances the deposition of extracellular matrix and may play potential role in wound healing and cirrhosis formation. Many cells synthesize TGF-b and almost all of them have specific receptors for this peptide. | ||||||||||||||||
| 91307 | ECHINOCOCCUS IgG | 86682 | Support a diagnosis of echinococcosis | ||||||||||||||||
| 91339 | ThinPrep Pap, HPV with Ref to Genotypes, CT/NG/Trich | 88175, 87624, 87491, 87591 | Liquid Based Pap Testing is intended for use in the screening and detection of cervical cancer, pre-cancerous lesions, atypical cells and all other cytologic categories as defined by The Bethesda System for Reporting Results of Cervical Cytology. Pap screening is not reliable for the detection of endometrial cancer. | ThinPrep™ Imaging System Pap HPV with Ref to Genotypes Chlamydia/Neisseria gonorrhoeae Trichomonas vaginalis | |||||||||||||||
| 91340 | ThinPrep Pap with HPV and CT/NG | 88175, 87624, 87491, 8759 | Liquid based Pap testing is intended for use in the screening and detection of cervical cancer, pre-cancerous lesions, atypical cellsand all other cytologic categories as defined by the Bethesda System for Reporting Results of Cervical Cytology. Pap screening isnot reliable for the detection of endometrial cancer.Testing for Human Papilloma Virus (HPV) DNA is an important adjunct to the detection of premalignant or malignant lesions in women.The HPV test simultaneously provide pooled results on high-risk genotypes and individual results on the highest-risk genotypes, HPV 16 and HPV 18, at clinically relevant infection levels. | SurePath(TM) Imaging PapHPV Screen with Ref to Genotypes Chlamydia trachomati PCR Neisseria gonorrhoeae PCR | |||||||||||||||
| 91431 | HIV 1/2 Antigen/Antibodies, with Reflexes | 87389 | This 5th generation HIV Ag/Ab Combo assay is intended to be used as an aid in the diagnosis of HIV1/HIV2 infection, including acute or primary HIV-1 infection. | If HIV Antigen and Antibody, 5th Generation Screen is Repeatedly Reactive, HIV-1/2 Antibody Differentiation will be performed at an additional charge | |||||||||||||||
| 91477 | Mycoplasma/Ureaplasma Panel | 87563 87798 x3 | Mycoplasma Ureaplasma Panel Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma spp. have been associated with genital tract infection. M. genitalium has been implicated in cervicitis endometritis and PID. M. hominis has also been associated with cervicitis and is present in increased numbers in vaginosis. Ureaplasma spp. have been linked to upper genitourinary tract infection and to premature labor and abortion. Because of their nature, these organisms are not routinely cultured and are better detected by molecular methods. Recently by molecular means two groups of Ureaplasma spp. have been distinguished- U. parvum and U. urealyticum with the former being more prevalent in the lower genital tract of a healthy woman. It is not clear which species more predominantly causes infection. M. hominis and the ureaplasmas appear to be opportunists when they infect the upper genitourinary tract. These organisms have also been targeted as having a possible role in infertility, although this remains a gray area. | ||||||||||||||||
| 91664 | Clostridium difficile Toxin/GDH with Reflex to PCR | 87449, 87324 | Clostridium difficile Toxin/GDH with Reflex to PCR - After treatment with antibiotics, many patients develop gastrointestinal problems ranging from mild diarrhea to severe pseudomembranous colitis. This organism is an opportunistic anaerobic bacterium that grows in the intestine once the normal flora has been altered by the antibiotic. For diagnosis of toxigenic C. difficile, current practice guidelines from the CDC recommend confirmation by Nucleic Acid Amplification Testing (NAAT) if the glutamate dehydrogenase of C. difficile (GDH) Antigen is positive, and toxin is not detected by Enzyme immunoassay. Additionally, if toxin is detected without the presence of GDH antigen, confirmation by NAAT is also recommended. | ||||||||||||||||
| 91665 | STRATIFY JCV(TM) Antibody (with Index) with Reflex to Inhibition Assay | 86711 | The JC Virus (JCV) is associated with progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML). Detection of antibodies to JCV in serum or plasma is a reliable indicator of exposure to JCV. The analytical performance characteristics were determined for multiple sclerosis patients. | If Index Value is between 0.19 and 0.41 (not inclusive), JC Virus Antibody Inhibition Assay will be performed at an additional charge (CPT code(s): 86711) | |||||||||||||||
| 91681 | Peanut Component Panel | 86003 | The ImmunoCAP Peanut Component Allergen Test helps to assess a patient's level of risk of a life-threatening reaction, and may reassure patients when the risk for allergic symptoms is low or when they will most likely experience mild or localized reactions upon exposure to peanut. The test helps the health care provider identify primary, species-specific allergic sensitization, differentiate between symptoms caused by a primary allergen source and those caused by cross-reactivity, assess the level of risk for life-threatening allergic reactions, and provide clarity regarding the patient's risk of an allergic reaction to ease fears and help target effective management | Ara h 2 (f423), Ara h 1 (f422), Ara h 3 (f424), Ara h 9 (f427), Ara h 8 (f352) | |||||||||||||||
| 91738 | Lp-PLA2 Activity | 83689 | Lipoprotein-associated phospholipase A2 (Lp- PLA2), also known as platelet activating factor Acetylhydrolase, is an inflammatory enzyme that circulates bound mainly to low density lipoproteins and has been found to be localized and enriched in atherosclerotic plaques. In multiple clinical trials, Lp-PLA2 activity has been shown to be an independent predictor of coronary heart disease and stroke in the general population. Measurement of Lp-PLA2 may be used along with traditional cardiovascular risk factor measures for identifying individuals at higher risk ofcardiovascular disease events. Clinical management may include beginning or intensifying risk reduction strategies. The activity assay is an enzyme assay run on an automated chemistry platform. | ||||||||||||||||
| 91745 | Thiopurine Metabolites | 80299 | 6-Mercaptopurine (Purinethol) and its imidazolyl derivative, Azathioprine (Imuran), are immunosuppressive drugs. 6-Mercaptopurine (6-MP) is indicated for remission induction and maintenance therapy of acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL).Azathioprine is indicated as an adjunct for the prevention of rejection in renal allograft (kidney transplant) patients, for themanagement of rheumatoid arthritis, and for the management of inflammatory bowel disease.Azathioprine is cleaved to 6-MP. 6-MP is metabolized via a series of enzymatic steps to 6-thioguanine nucleotides (6-TGNs), to 6-methyl-mercaptopurine (6-MMPNs) by the enzyme thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT), and to 6-thiouric acid by the enzymexanthine oxidase (XO). TPMT enzyme activity has large inter-individual variations which affect the efficacy, toxicity and variabilityof the treatment. Therapeutic drug monitoring of 6-MP metabolites (6-TGNs and 6-MMPNs) in erythrocytes is recommended toassist therapy. | 6-Thioguanine (6-TG), 6-Methylmercaptopurine (6-MMP) | |||||||||||||||
| 91898 | Alpha Melanocyte Stimulating Hormone (MSH) | 83520 | Alpha MSH is a 13 amino acid peptide (1665 kD) with serine at the N terminal end and amidated valine at the C terminal end. Alpha MSH is derived from pro-opiomelanocorticotropin, a precursor protein which contains within its structure, the equence of ACTH, beta MSH and gamma MSH. The amino acid sequence of alpha MSH is identical to ACTH 1-13 in humans. Alpha MSH stimulates melanosome dispersion within dermal melanocytes and melanin biosynthesis within epidermal melanocytes. It also stimulates aldosterone synthesis. Plasma alpha MSH increases in humans with high fever due to endotoxin. Average plasma alpha MSH has been found higher in AIDS patients and also in obese men with insulin resistance. | ||||||||||||||||
| 91979 | NAFLD Fibrosis Score | 82947, 84450, 84460, 85049 | The NAFLD fibrosis score is a simple noninvasive approach to identify patients that may have significant liver fibrosis and who therefore might benefit from additional studies such as elastography or liver biopsy. Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) affects approximately 30 percent of adults in developed countries. It is associated with obesity, diabetes, and dyslipidemia and is considered the liver manifestation of the metabolic syndrome. This disease is often asymptomatic. In some individuals, NAFLD is associated with inflammation (non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH)) and may progress to liver fibrosis and ultimately to cirrhosis and attendant complications. Such individuals are also at risk for the development of hepatocellular carcinoma. In patients with NAFLD, liver fibrosis is an important prognostic factor that predicts progression and outcome. The NAFLD fibrosis score was initially published by Angulo et al. (Hepatology 45, 846 (2007)) and has since been extensively validated. | Glucose, AST, ALT, Platelet Count, Albumin, Calculated Components, Personal Factors | |||||||||||||||
| 92021 | Prolixin (Fluphenazine) | 92021 | Fluphenazine is a phenothiazine derivative (piperazine) used in the treatment of psychotic disorders. Its dose in milligrams equivalent to 100 mg of chlorpromazine is 0.6-1.2 mg. A statistical evaluation1 of clinical studies found the near maximal effective dose of oral fluphenazine to be <6.9 mg/day. For the decanoate, the near-maximal effective dose was 25 mg/two weeks. As a high potency antipsychotic, it may have a high potential for causing extrapyramidal side effects. This would be in addition to the usual adverse effects of antipsychotic drugs (neurologic, anticholinergic, hypotension). Elderly patients should be observed for these occurrences. The half-life of fluphenazine is formulation-dependent. (The decanoate is 5 to 12 days; the hydrochloride 12 to 60 hours.) Fluphenazine is also used to alleviate pain and in childhood development disorders. | ||||||||||||||||
| 92769 | Oxidized LDL (OxLDL) | 83520 | OxLDL - The oxidized LDL test may be ordered for individuals at low or intermediate risk of metabolic syndrome or cardiovascular disease. In addition, this test is useful in individuals who have cardiovascular disease and are at risk for an adverse cardiac event. | ||||||||||||||||
| 92777 | QNatal Advanced | 81420 | The NIPS screens for fetal chromosomal abnormalities: trisomy 21, 18 and 13, as well as fetal sex. In addition, when a clear result is seen, will also report fetal sex aneuploidies and select microdeletions, including 22q (DiGeorge syndrome), 15q (Prader-Willi/Angelman syndromes), 11q (Jacobsen syndrome), 8q (Langer-Giedion syndrome), 5p (Cri-du-chat syndrome), 4p (Wolf-Hirschhorn syndrome), and 1p36 deletion syndrome as an additional finding. | Trisome 21, 18 and 13, as well as fetal sex. Also, when a clear result is seen, fetal sex aneuploidies and select microdeletions (22q, 15q, 11q, 8q, 5p, 4p, 1p36) will be reported as additional findings. | |||||||||||||||
| 92814 | Myeloperoxidase (MPO) | 83876 | Cardio IQ Myeloperoxidase (MPO) - Myeloperoxidase testing may be used for individuals with multiple risk factors for cardiovascular disease, or those with established disease. | ||||||||||||||||
| 93870 | Zika Virus RNA, Qualitative, RT-PCR | 87662 | Testing should only be performed on individuals meeting Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) Zika virus clinical criteria (e.g., a history of clinical signs and symptoms associated with Zika virus infection); CDC Zika virus epidemiological criteria (e.g. history of residence in or travel to a geographic region with active Zika transmission at the time of travel, or other epidemiological criteria for which Zika virus testing may be indicated); and/or the CDC guidelines. Most people with Zika virus infection are asymptomatic. Symptomatic individuals typically experience a mild illness characterized by fever, joint pain, rash, or conjunctivitis. Clinical illness is usually self-limited and lasts a week or less. Not all symptomatic patients report all of these clinical findings, and Zika manifestations overlap significantly with those seen in other viral infections. The incubation period is unclear, but likely to be several days. Symptoms generally resolve on their own within a week. | ||||||||||||||||
| 94088 | Perfluorooctanoic Acid, Blood | 82542 | Exposure monitoring. | ||||||||||||||||
| 94264 | ZIKA VIRUS AB, IgM, REFLEX CONFIRMATION | 86794 | Screen for the presence of IgM antibodies to Zika virus. Although not currently recommended by the CDC to be used for symptomatic or asymptomatic pregnant patients, the CDC does recommend both nucleic acid amplification testing (NAAT) and IgM be performed on maternal serum, and NAAT on maternal urine for the pregnant patient who has a fetus with prenatal ultrasound findings consistent with congenital Zika virus infection who lives in or has traveled to areas with a Zika risk during pregnancy (CDC Testing Guidance 2019). | ||||||||||||||||
| 94777 | Myositis Specific 11 Antibodies Panel | See Individual Tests | Jo-1 Ab, PL-7 Ab, PL-12 Ab, EJ Ab, OJ Ab, SRP Ab, Mi-2 Alpha Ab, Mi-2 Alpha Ab, Mi-2 Beta Ab, MDA-5 Ab, TIF-1y Ab, NXP-2 Ab | ||||||||||||||||
| 95241 | Galactose-alpha-1,3-galactose (Alpha-Gal) IgE | 82657 | The Galactose-alpha-1,3-galactose (Alpha-Gal) IgE test more specifically defines the etiology of allergic responses to meat allergens in patients with a delayed onset of symptoms (3 to 6 hours after meal). IgE to Alpha-Gal is the likely cause of anaphylactic reactions in individuals who develop hypersensitivities to beef, pork and/or lamb as adults. | ||||||||||||||||
| 99886 | Allergy Environmental Panel, IgE | 86003 X 16 | Dog Dander, E5, Cat Dander, E1, Lamb's Qtrs, W10, Common Ragweed, W1, Bermuda grass, G2, Johnson Grass, G10, June Grass,KYB, G8, Cockroach, I6, Alternaria tenuis, M6, Aspergillus fumigatus, M3, Elm American, T8, Oak, T7, Pecan Tree, T22, Maple, Box Elde, T1, D. Pteronyssinus, D1, C. herbarum, M2. | ||||||||||||||||
| 99981 | AA- Allergy, Spice and Herb Panel | 82785 , 86003 x 9 | Total IgE Basil, f269, IgE Black Pepper, f280, IgE Ginger, f270, IgE Chili Pepper, f279, IgE Garlic, f47, IgE Parsley, f86, IgE Mustard, f89, IgE Hazelnut, f17, IgE Oregano, f283, IgE | ||||||||||||||||
| 99982 | AA- Allergy, Fruit Panel | 82785 , 86003 x 21 | Total IgE Melons, f87, IgE Mango Fruit, f91, IgE Strawberry, f44, IgE Grapefruit, f209, IgE Watermelon, f329, IgE Apricot, f237, IgE Tomato, f25, IgE Plum, f255, IgE Cherry, f242, IgE Peach, f95, IgE Orange, f33, IgE Grape, f259, IgE Pineapple, f210, IgE Cantaloupe, f102, IgE Lemon, f208, IgE Pear, f94, IgE Blueberry, f288, IgE Apple, f49, IgE Avocado, f96, IgE Kiwi Fruit, f84, IgE Banana, f92, IgE | ||||||||||||||||
| 99984 | AA- Allergy, Seeds Panel | 82785 , 86003 X 5 | Sesame, f10, IgE Poppy seed, f224, IgE Flaxseed, rf333, IgE Cotton seed, K83, IgE Sunflower Seed, k84, IgE | ||||||||||||||||
| 99985 | NSAIDS Panel | ||||||||||||||||||
| 99986 | AA- Allergy, Vegetable Panel | 82785 , 86003 x 15 | Total IgE Spinach, f214, IgE Sweet Potato, f54, IgE Mushroom, f212, IgE Asparagus, f261, IgE Potato, f35, IgE Broccoli, f260, IgE Onion, f48, IgE Cauliflower, f291, IgE Cucumber, f244, IgE Celery, f85, IgE Carrot, f31, IgE Lettuce, f215, IgE Cabbage, f216, IgE Corn, f8, IgE Green Pepper, f263, IgE | ||||||||||||||||
| 99987 | AA- Allergy, Meat Panel | 82785, 86003 x 5 | Turkey Meat, f284, IgE Lamb, f88, IgE Beef, f27, IgE Pork, f26, IgE Chicken, F83, IgE | ||||||||||||||||
| 99988 | Allergy, Animal Epithelium Panel | 86003 | Cat Dander, e1, IgE Rabbit Epithelia, e82, IgE Dog Dander, e5, IgE Chicken Feathers, e85, IgE Horse Dander, e3, IgE Canary, e204, IgE Cow Dander, e4, IgE Duck, e86, IgE Mouse Epithelia, e71, IgE Goat Epithelia, e80, IgE Rat Epithelia, e73, IgE Guinea Pig Epithelia, e6, IgE Goose Feathers, e70, IgE | ||||||||||||||||
| 99991 | AA- Allergy, Grains and Beans Panel | 82785 , 86003 x 17 | Total IgE Sesame,f10, IgE Oat, f7, IgE Barly, f6, IgE Gluten, f79, IgE Green Bean, f315, IgE Rice, f9, IgE Pea, f12, IgE Buckwheat, f11, IgE Soybean, f14, IgE Malt, f90, IgE White Bean, f15, IgE Wheat, f4, IgE Lima Bean, f182, IgE Whey, f236, IgE Pinto Bean, f300, IgE Rye, f5, IgE Red Kidney Bean, f287, IgE | ||||||||||||||||
| 99992 | AA- Allergy, Dairy Panel | 86003 | Total, IgE Beta-lactoglob, f77, IgE Egg White, f1, IgE Casein, f78, IgE Milk, f2, IgE Cheese Cheddar, f81, IgE Egg Yolk, f75, IgE Yogurt, f360, IgE Alpha-Lactalbumin, f76, IgE | ||||||||||||||||
| 99995 | AA- Allergy, Mold Panel | 82785 , 86003 X 14 | Total IgE, Alternaria tenuis, m6, Aspergillus fumigatus, m3 Candida Albicans, m5 Helminthosporium halode, m8 Stemphylium botryosum, m10 Epicoccum purpurascens, m14 P. Notatom, m1 C. herbarum, m2 Fusarium moniliforme, m9 Aureobasidium pullulans, m12 Mucor racemosus, m4 Phoma betae, m13 Curvularia lunat, m16 Rhizopus nigricans, m11 | ||||||||||||||||
| 99996 | AA- Allergy, Trees Panel | 86003 | Total IgE Willow, t12, IgE Sycamore, t11, IgE White Ash, t15, IgE Sweet Gum, t211, IgE Red Cedar, t219, IgE Elm American, t8, IgE White Pine, t16, IgE Birch, t3, IgE Pecan Tree, t22, IgE Alder, t2, IgE Cedar Mountain, t6, IgE Hazlenut, t4, IgE Walnut, t10, IgE Beech, t5, IgE Maple, Box Elde, t1, IgEOak, t7, IgE Cottonwood, t14, IgE Olive, t9, IgE | ||||||||||||||||
| 99997 | Allergy, Weeds Allergens | 86003 | Giant Ragweed, w3, IgE Rough Marsh Elder, w16, IgE Mugwort, w6, IgE Firebush, w17 IgE English plantain, w9, IgE Cocklebur, w13, IgE Lamb's Quarters (Goose Foot) ,w10, IgE Goldenrod, w12, IgE Common Ragweed, w1, IgE Pigweed Rough, w14, IgE Nettle,w20, IgESheep Sorrel, w18, IgE | ||||||||||||||||
| 99998 | AA- Allergy, Grasses Panel | 86003 | Total IgE Orchard Grass, g3, IgE Cultivated Wheat Grass, g15, IgE Meadow Fescue, g4, IgE Perennial Rye Grass, g5, IgE Meadow Foxtail Grass, g70, IgE Bahia grass, g17, IgE Common Reed Grass, g7, IgE Canary Grass, g71, IgE Bermuda grass, g2, IgE Red Top, g9, IgE Johnson Grass, g10, IgE Brome Grass, g11, IgE June Grass, KYB, g8, IgE Cultivated Rye Grass, g12, IgE Timothy Grass, g6, IgE Velvet Grass, g13, IgE Sweet Vernal Grass, g1, IgE Cultivated Oat Grass, g14, IgE | ||||||||||||||||
| 99999 | AA- Allergy, Respiratory Panel | 82785 , 86003 X 24 | Total IgE , Dog Dander, e5 Cat Dander, e1 English plantain, w9 Common Ragweed, w1 Common Pigweed, w14Meadow fescue, g4 Bahia grass, g17 Bermuda grass, g2 Johnson Grass, g10 Meadow Grass(KY) g8Elm, t8 Birch,t3 Oak, t7 Pecan, t22 Cedar tree, t6 D farinae, d2 House Dust Mite,d1 House dust, Greer h1P. notatum, m1 C. herbarum, m2 A. fumigatus, m3 C. albicans, m5 A. alternata, m6 Cockroach, i6 | ||||||||||||||||
| 100090 | Chromosome Analysis- Leukemic Blood (CYTO LPB | ||||||||||||||||||
| 100092 | IgvH Mutation | ||||||||||||||||||
| 100313 | Lipid panel with direct LDL | 84275 | Evaluation of cardiovascular risk. Cardiovascular disease is the number one cause of death in the United States with an estimated 1.5 million heart attacks and 0.5 million strokes occurring annually, many in individuals who have no prior symptoms. Prevention of ischemic cardiovascular events is key. Risk factors including age, smoking status, hypertension, diabetes, cholesterol, and HDL cholesterol, are used by physicians to identify individuals likely to have an ischemic event. | Total Cholesterol, HDL Cholesterol, Triglycerides, LDL-Cholesterol (Direct), Cholesterol/HDL Ratio (calculated), Non-HDL Cholesterol (calculated) | |||||||||||||||
| 131862 | Potassium, Urine | Determining the cause for hyper- or hypokalemia | |||||||||||||||||
| 140100 | Quantose IGT/IR (GTT) | UANTOSE IGT is a laboratory-developed test (LDT) that reflects the degree of impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) in an individual - a known risk factor for prediabetes and cardiovascular disease. Prediabetes occurs when blood glucose levels that are higher than normal, but not yet high enough to be diagnosed as diabetes. Our test is designed to easily differentiate IGT from normal glucose tolerance. Quantose IGT is currently available to clinicians in the U.S. Quantose IGT is the first convenient test developed and clinically validated using the gold standard for impaired glucose tolerance, the oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT). We offer a simplified OGTT process that requires only a single, fasted blood draw. | |||||||||||||||||
| 140889 | B-Type Natriuretic Peptide | 83880 | BNP is increased in congestive heart failure, left ventricular hypertrophy, acute myocardial infarction, coronary angioplasty, and hypertension. Elevations are also observed in pulmonary hypertension (indicating right ventricular dysfunction), acute lung injury, hypervolemic states, chronic renal failure and cirrhosis. Decreasing levels indicate therapeutic response to anti-hypertensive therapy. | ||||||||||||||||
| 164065 | Arthritis Panel | 86200, 86431 | A basic panel to assisit in diagnosing Rheumatoid Arthritis. | ANA Panel, ESR, Uric Acid, RF, AntiCCP, CRP | |||||||||||||||
| 164905 | Herpes Simplex Virus 1 and 2-Specific Ab, IgG | 86695, 86696 | Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) is responsible for several clinically significant human viral diseases, with severity ranging from inapparent to fatal. Clinical manifestations include genital tract infections, neonatal herpes, meningoencephalitis, keratoconjunctivitis, and gingivostomatitis. There are two HSV serotypes that are closely related antigenically. HSV type 2 is more commonly associated with genital tract and neonatal infections, while HSV type 1 is more commonly associated with infections of non-genital sites. Specific typing is not usually required for diagnosis or treatment. The mean time to seroconversion using the type specific assay is 25 days. The performance of this assay has not been established for use in a pediatric population, for neonatal screening, or for testing of immunocompromised patients. | ||||||||||||||||
| 164914 | CCP Antibody, IgG | 86200 | A synthetic circular peptide containing citrulline called CCP IgG (cyclic citrullinated peptide) has been found to be better at discriminating Rheumatoid Arthritis patients from other patients than either the perinuclear autoantibody test or the test for rheumatoid factor. Approximately 70 percent of patients with Rheumatoid Arthritis are positive for Anti-CCP IgG, while only about 2 perent of random blood donors and disease controls subjects are positive. | ||||||||||||||||
| 165142 | Celiac Disease Panel | 83516 (4) , 82784 | Celiac disease is a gluten enteropathy occurring in both children and adults. The disease is probably underdiagnosed in that it may affect as much as 1 percent of the population in the US. The condition is characterized by a sensitivity to gluten (found in wheat, barley, and rye) that causes inflammation and atrophy of the villi of the small intestine, malabsorption, etc. This sensitivity to gluten may also be seen in dermatitis herpetiformis. Strict avoidance of gluten in the diet will control disease activity, and antibodies to serum markers will disappear with time. | Deamidated Gliadin Abs, IgA; Deamidated Gliadin Abs, IgG; t-Transglutaminase (tTG) IgA; t-Transglutaminase (tTG) IgG; Immunoglobulin A | |||||||||||||||
| 300114 | Iron and TIBC | 82607 | Screening for chronic iron overload diseases, particularly hereditary hemochromatosis. Serum iron, total iron-binding capacity, and percent saturation are widely used for the diagnosis of iron deficiency. However, serum ferritin is a much more sensitive and reliable test for demonstration of iron deficiency. | ||||||||||||||||
| 322744 | Hepatitis Panel (4) | 80074 | Differential diagnosis of recent acute viral hepatitis. | Hepatitis B Core IgM Antibody, Hepatitis B Surface Antigen, Hepatitis C Antibody, and Hepatitis A IgM Antibody, | |||||||||||||||
| 403091 | TLR Function | 86352 | Toll-like receptors (TLRs) are a class of proteins that play a key role in the innate immune system. They are single, membrane-spanning, non-catalytic receptors usually expressed on sentinel cells such as macrophages and dendritic cells, that recognize structurally conserved molecules derived from microbes. | ||||||||||||||||
| 480480 | JAK2 V617F Mutation | JAK2V617F (exon 14) mutation analysis can be used in conjunction with bone marrow histology and cytogenetic analysis to assist in the diagnosis of myeloproliferative neoplasms (MPN). The JAK2V617F mutation is found in almost all patients with polycythemia vera (PV) and in nearly one- half of those with idiopathic myelofibrosis (IMF) and with essential thrombocythemia (ET). The V617F mutation has also been detected, although infrequently, in other myeloid disorders, such as chronic myelomonocytic leukemia and chronic neutrophilic leukemia. | |||||||||||||||||
| 480481 | BCR ABL | 81207 ,81206 ,81206, 81207 | This reverse-transcription PCR-based assay detects the BCR-ABL1 transcript produced by the t(9;22) chromosomal translocation associated with chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) and a subset of lymphoblastic leukemias. For the P190 transcript associated with the minor t(9;22) breakpoint in lymphoblastic leukemia, BCR-ABL1 transcript levels are expressed as a percent ratio of BCR-ABL1 to the normalizing ABL1 transcript. For the P210 transcript associated with CML, quantitation is further adjusted to the international scale (IS) to allow comparison with other IS-compliant BCR-ABL1 assays. Optimal therapy in CML is associated with transcript levels below the major molecular response (MMR) milestone indicated by a BCR-ABL1/ABL1 percent (IS) below 0.1. | If P190 transcript expression was previously documented, only P190 BCR-ABL1 will be performed (CPT code(s): 81207). If P210 transcript expression was previously documented, only P210 BCR-ABL1 will be performed (CPT code(s): 81206). If no prior positive is documented, P190 BCR-ABL1 and P210 BCR-ABL1 will be performed (CPT code(s): 81206, 81207) | |||||||||||||||
| 480482 | Jack2 V617F Mutation | Diagnose Polycythemia Vera (PV), Essential Thrombocythemia (ET), and Idiopathic Myelofibrosis (MF). | If JAK2 V617F result is not detected, Exons 12,13 will be performed at an additional charge (CPT code(s): 81403). If JAK2 Exons 12,13 Mutations result is not detected, MPL W515 and MPL S505 Mutation Analysis will be performed at an additional charge (CPT code(s): 81402). | ||||||||||||||||
| 480483 | JAK2 Exon 12 Mutation Analysis | Myeloproliferative disorders (MPDs) are clonal hematopoietic stem cell malignancies characterized by excessive production of blood cells by hematopoietic precursors. In addition to thrombotic and hemorrhagic complications, leukemic transformation can occur. The main members of MPD are Polycythemia Vera (PV), Essential Thrombocythemia (ET) and Idiopathic Myelofibrosis (MF). The molecular pathogenesis of most MPDs is unknown. This V617F mutation leads to constituitive tyrosine phosphorylation activity that promotes cytokine activity and induces erythrocytosis. The V617F mutation in JAK2 is a dominant-gain of function mutation that contributes to the expansion of the myeloproliferative disorder clone. JAK2 exon 12 mutations define a distinctive myeloproliferative syndrome. | |||||||||||||||||
| 480510 | BCR-ABL by PCR | 81206, 81207 | This reverse-transcription PCR-based assay detects the BCR-ABL1 transcript produced by the t(9;22) chromosomal translocation associated with chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) and a subset of lymphoblastic leukemias. For the P190 transcript associated with the minor t(9;22) breakpoint in lymphoblastic leukemia, BCR-ABL1 transcript levels are expressed as a percent ratio of BCR-ABL1 to the normalizing ABL1 transcript. For the P210 transcript associated with CML, quantitation is further adjusted to the international scale (IS) to allow comparison with other IS-compliant BCR-ABL1 assays. Optimal therapy in CML is associated with transcript levels below the major molecular response (MMR) milestone indicated by a BCR-ABL1/ABL1 percent (IS) below 0.1 | ||||||||||||||||
| 480772 | PSA, Total with Reflex to Free PSA | 84153 | In men over 50 years with Total PSA between 4.0 and 10.0 ng/mL, the percent. Free PSA gives an estimate of the probability of cancer. In these circumstances the measurement of the percent Free PSA may aid in avoiding unnecessary biopsies. Elevated levels of prostate specific antigen (PSA) have been associated with benign and malignant prostatic disorders. Studies indicate that in men 50 years or older measurement of PSA is a useful addition to the digital rectal exam in the early detection of prostate cancer. In addition, PSA decreases to undetectable levels following complete resection of the tumor and may rise again with recurrent disease or persist with residual disease. Thus, PSA levels may be of assistance in the management of prostate cancer patients. | ||||||||||||||||
| 480947 | PSA Total and Free with Ratio | PSA, Total, PSA, Free | |||||||||||||||||
| 489000 | ZAP-70 | 88184, 88185 | Patients with chronic lymphocytic leukemia have variable outcome. Some live with their disease for more than 25 years and some die within a few years. ZAP70 can predict patients who have aggressive disease and need aggressive therapy. | ||||||||||||||||
| 489100 | FLOW FOR CLL | 88184, 88185, 88189 | CD2, CD3, CD4, CD5, CD7, CD8, CD10, CD11c, CD19, CD20, CD23, CD38, CD56, CD64, FMC7, Kappa, Lambda, CD45 Additional markers may be performed based on the pathologist review. These markers will be performed at an additional charge (CPT code(s): 88185 for each additional marker) | ||||||||||||||||
| 510594 | CLL FISH Panel | 88271 (x6), 88275 (x3) | |||||||||||||||||
| 800997 | Allergy, Arizona Desert and Mountain Panel | Mouse Urine Proteins (E72) IGE Sheep Sorrel (w18) IgE Mulberry Tree IGE Russian Thistle (W11) IGE Alternaria alternata (M6) IgE Cockroach, I6 Asperhillus Fumigatus, M3 Common Ragweed, W14, IgE Bermuda grass, G2 Perennial Rye Grass (g5) IgE Timothy Grass, G6 Johnson Grass, G10 Cat Dander, E1 Dog Dander, E5 Oak, T7 Elm American, T8 Cottonwood, T14 Pecan Tree, T22 | |||||||||||||||||
| 850821 | MDMA, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | MDMA (3,4-Methylenedioxymethamphetamine) MDA (3,4-Methylenedioxyamphetamine) Present in the following medication: Ecstasy, XTC, Adam, bean, Molly, New Yorkers, peace, white dove | |||||||||||||||
| 850822 | MDEA, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | MDEA (3,4-Methylenedioxy-N-ethylamphetamine) MDA (3,4-Methylenedioxyamphetamine) Present in the following medication: Eve | |||||||||||||||
| 850823 | Amphetamine, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Amphetamine Present in the following medication: Adderall, Adzenys XR-ODT, Benzedrine, Dexedrine, Dyanavel XR, Evekeo, Vyvanse, ProCentra, Zenzed | |||||||||||||||
| 850824 | Methamphetamine, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs | Methamphetamine, Amphetamine Present in the following medication: Desoxy, Methedrine | |||||||||||||||
| 850825 | Methylphenidate, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs | Methylphenidate Ritalinic acid Present in the following medication: Ritalin, Concerta, Aptensio, Biphentin, Daytrana, Equasym, Medikinet, Metadate, Methylin, QuilliChew, Quillivant | |||||||||||||||
| 850826 | Phentermine, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Phentermine Present in the following medication: Adipex-P, Duromine, Metermine, Suprenza | |||||||||||||||
| 850827 | Alprazolam, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Alprazolam Alpha-HydroxyalprazolamPresent in the following medication: Xanax, Niravam, Xanor, Frontal, Tafil, Alprax | |||||||||||||||
| 850828 | Clonazepam, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Clonazepam 7-Aminoclonazepam Present in the following medication: Klonopin, Antelepsin, Rivotril, Paxam | |||||||||||||||
| 850829 | Diazepam, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Diazepam Nordiazepam Oxazepam Temazepam Present in the following medication: Valium | ||||||||||||||||
| 850830 | Nordiazepam, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Nordiazepam Oxazepam Present in the following medication: Nordaz, Camday, Vegesan, Madar, Stilny | |||||||||||||||
| 850831 | Temazepam, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Temazepam Oxazepam Present in the following medication: Restoril, Normison, Euhypnos, Temaze | |||||||||||||||
| 850832 | Oxazepam, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Oxazepam Present in the following medication: Serax, Serenid | |||||||||||||||
| 850833 | Lorazepam, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Lorazepam Present in the following medication: Ativan, Lorabenz, Temesta | |||||||||||||||
| 850834 | Flurazepam, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | 2-Hydroxyethylflurazepam Present in the following medication: Dalmane, Dalmadorm | |||||||||||||||
| 850835 | Midazolam, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Alpha-Hydroxymidazolam Present in the following medication: Versed, Dormicum, Hypnovel, Dormonid | |||||||||||||||
| 850836 | Triazolam, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs | alpha-Hydroxymidazolam Present in the following medication: Apo-Triazo, Halcion, Hypam, Trilam | |||||||||||||||
| 850837 | Chlordiazepoxide, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Chlordiazepoxide Nordiazepam Oxazepam Present in the following medication: Librium, Poxi, Libritabs, Mitran | ||||||||||||||||
| 850838 | Hydrocodone, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0481 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Hydrocodone Hydromorphone Norhydrocodone Present in the following medication: Anexsia, Dicodid, Hycodan, Hycomine, Lorcet, Lortab, Norco, Tussionex , Vicodin, Vicoprofen | |||||||||||||||
| 850839 | Hydromorphone, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Hydromorphone Present in the following medication: Dilaudid, Hydromorph, Contin, Laudicon, Novolaudon | |||||||||||||||
| 850840 | Oxycodone, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Oxycodone Oxymorphone Noroxycordone Present in the following medication: Percodan, Endodan, Roxiprin, Percocet, Endocet, Roxicet, OxyContin, OxyIR, Roxicodone | |||||||||||||||
| 850841 | Oxymorphone, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Oxymorphone Present in the following medication: Opana, Opana ER, Numorphan | |||||||||||||||
| 850842 | Morphine, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Morphine Hydromorphone Present in the following medication: MS Contin, Avinza, Kadian Morphabond, MSI, Oramorph SR, Roxanol | |||||||||||||||
| 850843 | Codeine, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Codeine Morphine Hydrocodone Present in the following medication: Tylenol3, Tylenol4, Tylenol5 | |||||||||||||||
| 850844 | Pentazocine, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0480 | effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Pentazocine Present in the following medication: Fortral, Sosegon, Talwin NX, Talwin, Talwin PX, Fortwin and Talacen | |||||||||||||||
| 850845 | Tramadol, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Tramadol O-Desmethyl-cis-tramadol Present in the following medication: Ultram, Ultracet, Ultram ER, ConZip, Tramadol Hydrochloride ER | |||||||||||||||
| 850847 | Tapentadol, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Tapentadol Present in the following medication: Nucynta, Palexia, Tapal | |||||||||||||||
| 850848 | Buprenophine, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Buprenophine Norbuprenophine Naloxone Present in the following medication: Buprenex, Butrans, Suboxone, Subutex, Zubsolv | |||||||||||||||
| 850849 | Naloxone, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Naloxone Present in the following medication: Narcan, Evzio, and Narcan Nasal Spray | |||||||||||||||
| 850850 | Fentanyl, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Fentanyl Norfentanyl Present in the following medication: Duragesic, Ionsys | |||||||||||||||
| 850851 | Meperidine, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Meperidine Normeperidine Present in the following medication: Demerol, Meperitab | |||||||||||||||
| 850852 | Methadone, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Methadone EDDP Present in the following medication: Dolophine, Methadose, Methadone Diskets, Methadose Sugar-Free | |||||||||||||||
| 850853 | Naltrexone, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Naltrexone Present in the following medication: Revia, Vivitrol | ||||||||||||||||
| 850854 | Dextromethorphan, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Dextromethorphan Dextrophan Present in the following medication: Benylin DM, Mucinex DM, Camydex-20 tablets, Robitussin, NyQuil Dimetapp, Vicks, Coricidin, Delsym, TheraFlu, Cheracol D | |||||||||||||||
| 850855 | Gabapentin, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Gabapentin Present in the following medication: Neurontin, Gralise, Gabarone, Fanatrex | |||||||||||||||
| 850856 | Pregabalin, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis on clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Pregabalin Present in the following medication: Lyrica | |||||||||||||||
| 850857 | Carisoprodol, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Carisoprodol Meprobamate Present in the following medication: Soma, Carisoma, Dance, Ds | |||||||||||||||
| 850858 | Zaleplon, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Zaleplon Present in the following medication: Sonata, Starnoc, Andante | |||||||||||||||
| 850859 | Zolpidem, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Zolpidem Zolpidem-COOH Present in the following medication: Ambien, Zolpimist, Ambien CR Edluar | |||||||||||||||
| 850860 | Zopiclone, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Zopiclone Present in the following medication: Zimovane, Imovane | |||||||||||||||
| 850861 | Amitriptyline, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Amitriptyline Nortriptyline Present in the following medication: Elavil, Endep, Enovil, Levate, Tryptanol, Etrafon, Triavil, Saronten | |||||||||||||||
| 850862 | Nortriptyline, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Nortriptyline Present in the following medication: Aventyl, Pamelor, Sensoval, Nortrilen | |||||||||||||||
| 850863 | Cyclobenzaprine, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Cyclobenzaprine Present in the following medication: Amrix, Flexeril, Fexmid | |||||||||||||||
| 850864 | Clomipramine, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | ClomipramineN-Desmethylclomipramine | |||||||||||||||
| 850865 | Imipramine, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | DesipramineImipramine Present in the following medication: Tofranil, Tofranil-PM | |||||||||||||||
| 850866 | Desipramine, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Desipramine Present in the following medication: Norpramin, Pertofrane | |||||||||||||||
| 850867 | Doxepin, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0481 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Doxepin Desmethyldoxepin Present in the following medication: Adapin, Prudoxin, Sinequan, Zonalon | |||||||||||||||
| 850868 | Citalopram, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Citalopram Desmethylcitalopram Present in the following medication: Celexa, Cipramil | |||||||||||||||
| 850869 | Duloxetine, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Duloxetine Present in the following medication: Ariclaim, Cymbalta, Yentreve | |||||||||||||||
| 850870 | Fluoxetine, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Fluoxetine Norfluoxetine Present in the following medication: Prozac | |||||||||||||||
| 850871 | Paroxetine, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0480 | Paroxetine Present in the following medication: Paxil, Paxil CR, Pexeva, Brisdelle | ||||||||||||||||
| 850872 | Sertraline, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Sertraline Present in the following medication: Lustral, Zoloft | |||||||||||||||
| 850873 | Trazodone, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Trazodone Present in the following medication: Desyrel, Molipaxin, Oleptro, Trazamine | |||||||||||||||
| 850874 | Venlafaxine, LCMS Confirmation, Ur | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Venlafaxine Present in the following medication: Effexor | |||||||||||||||
| 850900 | Drug Monitoring, Amphetamines Confirmation | G0481 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Amphetamine, Methamphetamine MDMA (3,4-Methylenedioxymethamphetamine) MDA (3,4-Methylenedioxyamphetamine ) MDEA (3,4-Methylenedioxy-N-ethylamphetamine) MethylphenidateRitalinic acid Phentermine | |||||||||||||||
| 850901 | Drug Monitoring, Benzodiazepines, Confirmation | G0481 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Alprazolam,alpha-Hydroxyalprazolam,Clonazepam,7-Aminoclonazepam,ChlordiazepoxideDiazepamNordiazepamOxazepamTemazepamLorazepam2-Hydroxyethylflurazepamalpha-Hydroxymidazolam | |||||||||||||||
| 850902 | Drug Monitoring, Opiates Confirmation | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | HydrocodoneHydromorphoneNorhydrocodoneOxycodoneOxymorphoneNoroxycordoneMorphineCodeine | |||||||||||||||
| 850903 | Drug Monitoring, Synthetic Opiates Confirmation | G0482 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Pentazocine,Tramadol,O-Desmethyl-cis-tramadol,Propoxyphene,Norpropoxyphene,TapentadolBuprenophine,Norbuprenophine,Naloxone,FentanylNorfentanylMeperidineNormeperidineMethadoneEDDPNaltrexone | |||||||||||||||
| 850905 | Drug Monitoring, Illicits Confirmation | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | 6-AcethylmorphineCocaineBenzoylecgoninePhencyclidine (PCP) | |||||||||||||||
| 850906 | Drug Monitoring, Anticonvulsants Confirmation | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Gabapentin Pregabalin | |||||||||||||||
| 850907 | Drug Monitoring, Tranquilizers Confirmation | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Zopiclone | |||||||||||||||
| 850908 | Drug Monitoring, Tricyclic Antidepressants Confirmation | G0481 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Amitriptyline,NortriptylineCyclobenzaprineClomipramineN-DesmethylclomipramineDesipramineImipramineDoxepinDesmethyldoxepin | |||||||||||||||
| 850909 | Drug Monitoring, SSRIs/SARIs/SNRIs Confirmation | G0481 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | Citalopram,DesmethylcitalopramDuloxetineFluoxetineNorfluoxetineParoxetineSertralineTrazodoneVenlafaxine | |||||||||||||||
| 850910 | Drug Monitoring, Marijuana and others Confirmation | G0480 | Toxicology LCMS confirmation are used to identify substances affecting a patient and to guide the clinician to predict future toxic effects, to confirm the differential diagnosis or to guide therapy. Accurate diagnosis of clinical intoxication secondary to illicit drug use based on clinical history and physical examination may be difficult without laboratory confirmation. This testing is also necessary when multiple drug ingestion is involved, as the effects of one drug may mask the clinical signs and symptoms of the effects of other drugs. | THC-COOHJWH-018-COOHJWH-073-COOHMitragynineOH-* Cotinine | |||||||||||||||
| C1467 | Antithrombin III Activity, Reflex to Antigen | 85300 | |||||||||||||||||
| C3040 | ETHANOL, SERUM/PLASMA | Quantitation of ethanol in blood in patients appearing under the influence of alcohol in emergency room setting. The concentration typically correlates with degree of intoxication in patients who do not abuse alcohol. Investigation of cause of coma of unknown etiology - alcohol intoxication may mimic diabetic coma, cerebral trauma, and drug overdose Screen for alcoholism Monitor intravenous ethanol treatment for methanol and ethylene glycol intoxication | |||||||||||||||||
| C3773 | URTICARIA-INDUCING ACTIVITY | ||||||||||||||||||
| C4320 | ARSENIC, URINE REFLEX SPECIATION | 82175 | Evaluate recent exposure to arsenic (acute or chronic); arsenic toxicity Investigation of signs and symptoms of acute or subacute arsenic poisoning including severe abdominal pain, vomiting, bloody diarrhea, garlic odor on breath, difficulty swallowing Investigation of chronic toxicity based on exposure history, medical history, physical exam, and symptoms including hyperpigmentation, skin lesions, hyperkeratosis, hair loss, neuropathy, hepatomegaly, anemia, etc. Distinguish presence of toxic and nontoxic forms of arsenic and determine etiology of increased urine arsenic Monitor the clinical course of an acute poisoning case Monitor for occupational exposure | CREATININE | |||||||||||||||
| C5412 | S. CEREVISIAE IgG/IgA | 86671 X2 | |||||||||||||||||
| C5958 | METHYLPHENIDATE, SERUM/PLASMA | ||||||||||||||||||
| PTCB4 | PTC General Health Panel | PTC General Health Panel, CBC w Diff, CMP, Lipid Panel, TSH | |||||||||||||||||
| PTCC4 | PTC Pediatric Panel | PTC Pediatric Panel, CBC w Diff, CMP, TSH, Urinalysis Complete | |||||||||||||||||
| PTCD6 | PTC Initial Health Panel | PTC Initial Health Panel, CBC w Diff, CMP, Lipid Panel, TSH, FT3, FT4 | |||||||||||||||||
| PTCF6 | PTC STD Panel | PTC STD Panel, HIV 1/2 Antigen/Antibodies, with Rflx, HSV 1-Specific Ab, IgG, HSV 2-Specific Ab, IgG, Syphilis Antibody Reflex, Neisseria gonorrhoea, Chlamydia trachomatis | |||||||||||||||||
| PTCG7 | -C-PTC OB Panel PTC Prenatal Panel | PTC OB Panel, PTC Prenatal Panel, CBC w Diff, ABO Group and Rh Type, Ab Screen, Syphilis Antibody Reflex, HIV 1/2 Antigen Antibodies, Rubella IgG, Hepatitis B Surface Antigen | |||||||||||||||||
| PTCH4 | PTC Female Hormone Panel | PTC Female Hormone Panel, E2, Progesterone, DHEA-S, Testosterone Total | |||||||||||||||||
| PTCI3 | PTC Thyroid Panel | PTC Thyroid Panel, TSH, FT3, FT4 | |||||||||||||||||
| PTCJ5 | PTC Thyroid Plus Panel | PTC Thyroid Plus Panel, TSH, FT3, FT4, TPO, TgAB | |||||||||||||||||
| PTCM4 | PTC ADVANCED LIPID PANEL | PTC Advanced Lipid Panel, Lipid Panel, Apolipoprotein B, Lipoprotein (a), LipoHealth NMR | |||||||||||||||||
| PTCN9 | -C-PTC Advanced Cardio Inflammation Panel | PTC Advanced Cardio Inflammation Panel, Apolipoprotein A-1, Apolipoprotein B, Lipoprotein (a), Lp-PLA2 Activity, Myeloperoxidase, CRP-hs, LDL small density (sdLDL), Homocysteine, LipoHealth NMR | |||||||||||||||||
| PTCO3 | PTC DIABETES RISK PANEL | PTC Diabetes Risk Panel, Lipid Panel, Hemoglobin A1c, Glucose | |||||||||||||||||
| PTCP7 | -C-PTC DIABETES ASSESSMENT PANEL | PTC Diabetes Assessment Panel, Lipid Panel, Hemoglobin A1c, Glucose, GlycoMark, 1,5-Anhydroglucitol (1,5AG), Adiponectin, C-Peptide, Ferritin | |||||||||||||||||
| PTCQ8 | PTC WOMENS STARTER HEALTH PROFILE | PTC Women's Starter Health Profile, CBC w Diff, CMP, Lipid Panel, Urinalysis, CRP-hs, Hemoglobin A1c, Vitamin D, TSH | |||||||||||||||||
| PTCR17 | PTC WOMENS VITALITY AND HORMONE PANEL | PTC Women's Vitality and Hormone Panel, CBC w Diff, CMP, Lipid Panel, TSH, FT3, FT4, Progesterone, DHEA-S, Testosterone Free, Testosterone Total, SHBG, E2, LH, FSH, IGF-1, CRP-hs, Ferritin | |||||||||||||||||
| PTCS4 | PTC HEAVY METAL TOXICITY PANEL 2 | PTC Heavy Metal Toxicity Panel 2, Lead, Arsenic, Mercury, Cadmium | |||||||||||||||||
| PTCT8 | PTC MENS STARTER HEALTH PANEL | PTC Men's Starter Health Panel, CBC w Diff, CMP, Lipid Panel, Urinalysis, CRP-hs, Hemoglobin A1c, Vitamin D, TSH | |||||||||||||||||
| PTCU17 | PTC MENS VITALITY AND HORMONE PANEL | PTC Men's Vitality and Hormone Panel, CBC w Diff, CMP, Lipid Panel, TSH, FT3, FT4, PSA, DHEA-S, Testosterone Free, Testosterone Total, SHBG, E2, LH, FSH, IGF-1, CRP-hs, Ferritin | |||||||||||||||||
| PTCV3 | PTC IMMIGRATION PANEL 1 | PTC Immigration Panel 1, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Syphillis Rapid Plasma Reagin, QuantiFERON-TB Gold | |||||||||||||||||
| PTCW47 | PTC MENS FUNCTIONAL HEALTH PANEL | PTC Men's Functional Health Panel, CBC w Diff, Urinalysis Complete, LipoHealth NMR, Lipid Panel, BMP w eGFR, Electrolyte Panel, Iron and TIBC, Zinc Serum/Plasma, DHEA-S, Homocysteine, PSA Total and Free w Ratio, Vitamin D, Lead, LH, E2, TPO, TgAB, Prolactin, Insulin, Apolipoprotein A-1, Apolipoprotein B, Cortisol, CRP-hs, TSH, FT3, FT4, Testosterone Free and Total w SHBG, Hemoglobin A1c, Ferritin, Magnesium, ESR, ANA Direct Screen, Rheumatoid Factor, Lipase, Uric Acid, Amylase, Glucose, Calcium, Vitamin B12 and Folate, GGT, IGF-1 | |||||||||||||||||
| PTCX45 | PTC WOMENS FUNCTIONAL HEALTH PANEL | PTC Women's Functional Health Panel, CBC w Diff, Urinalysis Complete, LipoHealth NMR, Lipid Panel, BMP w eGFR, Electrolyte Panel, Iron and TIBC, Zinc Serum/Plasma, DHEA-S, Homocysteine, Vitamin D, Lead, LH, E2, TPO, TgAB, Prolactin, Insulin, Apolipoprotein A-1, Apolipoprotein B, Cortisol, CRP-hs, TSH, FT3, FT4, Testosterone Free and Total with SHBG, Hemoglobin A1c, Ferritin, Magnesium Serum, ESR, ANA Direct Screen, Rheumatoid Factor, Lipase, Uric Acid, Amylase, Glucose, Calcium, Vitamin B12 and Folate, GGT, Progesterone, IGF-1 |
